VET377 - the one with the bloods

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Alimentary Tract

Last updated 1:21 AM on 7/30/26
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317 Terms

1
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Common benign mass in cat oral cavity.

Pyogenic granuloma

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What is most likely to yield a definitive diagnosis when investigating canine chronic inflammatory enteropathy (IBS)

Response to therapy

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What is the most likely cause of regurgitation in an 8-week-old Irish setter puppy with a focal oesophageal stricture? 

Persistent right aortic arch.

4
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GDV risk factors in dogs

  • breed (large + giant breed)

  • deep chested dogs

  • once daily feeding

  • aerophagia

  • recent exercise after eating

5
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Sequale for an animal that survived ruminal acidosis

  • liver abscessation from haematogenous spread of gram +ve bacteria

  • laminitis due to ischaemia of laminae

6
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What are the mechanisms of D+?

  • Malassimilation e.g. EPI, villous atrophy due to viral infection

  • Hypersecretory e.g. enterotoxigenic E. coli

  • Exudative/inflammatory e.g. chronic inflammatory enteropathy, food allergy, Johne’s disease

  • Hypermotility e.g. intestinal parasites

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Clinical signs of Haemonchus contortus infection

  • pallor

  • bottle jaw

  • sudden death

  • exercise intolerance

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What is the cause of neurological signs in ruminal acidosis?

Thiamine deficiency

9
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What is the main clinical sign seen in a herd of cows where sub acute ruminal acidosis is suspected?

Increased/decreased (cyclical) feed intake

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What is the condition required to develop neonatal isoerythrolysis in cats?

Queen type B and kitten type A

11
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What organ is primarily responsible for erythrocyte destruction?

Spleen

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Which condition is characterised by decreased erythrocyte mass with normovolemia? 

Post-haemorrhagic with compensation

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How can you tell whether the anaemia is regenerative or non-regenerative?

  • An increase in the # + % of reticulocytes (reticulocytosis)

  • Won’t be able to tell until 48hrs post blood loss

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How can you tell whether an anaemia is regenerative or non-regenerative in a horse?

  • Since don’t release reticulocytes → compare HCT

  • if regenerative, will increase

  • if non-regenerative, will decrease or stay same

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How would you interpret HGB on a CBC?

refers to Hb inside RBC

16
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How would you interpret HCT on a CBC

  • = haematocrit

  • % of blood represented by RBC

  • should ~ PCV

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What measures on a CBC decrease with anaemia?

RBC, HGB, HCT

18
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How would you interpret MCV on CBC?

  • = mean corpuscular volume

  • ‘avg size of RBC’

  • normocytic = normal size

  • macrocytic = increased size

  • microcytic = reduced size

19
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How would you interpret MCHC on CBC

  • = mean corpuscular Hb content

  • ‘colour’

  • normochromic = normal color

  • hyperchromic = more red

  • hypochromic = pale RBC

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What would result in a normocytic, normochromic anaemia?

  • pre-regenerative anaemia

  • non-regenerative anaemia

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What would result in macrocytic, hypochromic anaemia

regenerative anaemia

  • increased cytoplasm dilutes Hb → reduced MCHC

  • younger cells = bigger → increased avg cell size

22
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What would result in a microcytic, hypochromic anaemia

Fe deficiency

  • reduced Fe → reduced Hb synth → reduced colour

  • see leptocytes

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What would result in a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia

FeLV

24
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What is a monocyte?

A circulating macrophage

25
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What is a stress leukogram?

Result of Glucorticoid (cortisol) response

  • LEMON

  • reduced diapedesis → more neutrophils circulating

  • increased mobilisation of marginating pools

  • immunosuppressive → reduced mobilisation of lymphocytes

  • inhib of eosinopoiesis

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What does LEMON stand for?

  • less lymphocytes + eosinophils

  • more monocytes + neutrophils

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acute inflammation without left shift

Release of marginal + storage pools

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acute inflammation with regenerative left shift

release of marginal + storage pools

  • + band neutrophils (neutrophil > band)

  • need to look under microscope to ID

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acute inflammation with degenerative left shift

  • bands > normal neutrophils

  • consumed most of circulatory, marginating + storage pools

  • severe + mostly associated with sepsis

  • often leads to neutropenia

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What can result in thrombocytosis?

  • inflammation

  • iron deficiency

31
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How can a genetic mutation cause acute leukaemia?

It stops maturation with increased cell proliferation.

32
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Which is a cause of appropriate secondary absolute erythrocytosis? 

Chronic hypoxia

33
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What is the difference between relative and absolute increases in HCT + RBC?

relative:

  • changes in RBC w/ respect to plasma

  • effect of haemoconcentration

  • e.g. due to loss of IV water (dehydration)

absolute:

  • due to increased erythropoeisis

  • primary = BM disorder

  • secondary = appropriate (hypoxia) or inappropriate production of EPO

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Severity of anaemia classification (HCT/PCV)

  • >30 = mild

  • 20-30 = moderate

  • <20 = severe

35
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<p>What is the name of the nucleated cell?</p>

What is the name of the nucleated cell?

Metarubricyte

36
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<p>What cells are the arrows pointing to?</p>

What cells are the arrows pointing to?

Reticulocytes

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<p>What cell is this arrow pointing to?</p>

What cell is this arrow pointing to?

Codocyte

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<p>What cell is this arrow pointing to?</p>

What cell is this arrow pointing to?

Leptocyte

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<p>What abnormality can you see in this image?</p>

What abnormality can you see in this image?

Heinz bodies

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<p>What abnormality can you see in this image?</p>

What abnormality can you see in this image?

Eccentrocytes

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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Schistocyte

  • RBC fragment with pointed extremities

42
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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Acanthocyte

  • pointed segments (diff to echinocyte)

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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Echinocyte

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<p>What is the arrow pointing to?</p>

What is the arrow pointing to?

Spherocyte

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<p>What is the arrow pointing to?</p>

What is the arrow pointing to?

Keratocyte

46
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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Band neutrophil

47
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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Mature neutrophil

48
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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Hypersegmented neutrophil

49
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<p>What are these?</p>

What are these?

Monocytes

50
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<p>What are the big cells near the RBCs?</p>

What are the big cells near the RBCs?

Eosinophils

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<p>What toxic change has happened in this neutrophil?</p>

What toxic change has happened in this neutrophil?

Foamy vacuolation.

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<p>What toxic change has happened in this neutrophil?</p>

What toxic change has happened in this neutrophil?

Dohle bodies

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<p>What toxic change has happened in this neutrophil?</p>

What toxic change has happened in this neutrophil?

Increased basophilia

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The intracellular fluid compartment…

Constitutes 2/3 of total body water and has a high potassium concentration

55
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Hyperkalaemia is most likely to result from ...

oliguria (reduced urine)

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Hyperkalaemia could be treated with administration of ...

Insulin

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<p><span>A blood gas panel is performed on a dog. This is most consistent with:</span></p>

A blood gas panel is performed on a dog. This is most consistent with:

Ethylene glycol toxicity

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<p>A blood gas panel is performed on a cat. This is most consistent with: </p>

A blood gas panel is performed on a cat. This is most consistent with:

Airway obstruction

59
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What is the formula for calculating the anion gap?

(Na + K) - (Cl + HCO3)

60
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Aldosterone deficiency will result in:

Hypovolaemia, with subsequent antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion

61
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Acute ingestion of a large volume of free water will result in:

Cerebral oedema

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Appropriate compensation for a primary metabolic acidosis involves:

Hyperventilation

63
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The most accurate measure of all ECF buffer systems is:

Base Excess

64
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<p><span>A 9 week old female intact Maltese cross presents for a 2-3 day history of severe vomiting and haemorrhagic diarrhoea (hematochezia). On presentation she is collapsed in shock. Select the pathophysiology that best explains the hyponatremia:</span></p>

A 9 week old female intact Maltese cross presents for a 2-3 day history of severe vomiting and haemorrhagic diarrhoea (hematochezia). On presentation she is collapsed in shock. Select the pathophysiology that best explains the hyponatremia:

Nonosmotic ADH release due to hypovolaemia.

65
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<p>A 9 week old female intact Maltese cross presents for a 2-3 day history of severe vomiting and haemorrhagic diarrhoea (hematochezia). On presentation she is collapsed in shock. <span>Select the most accurate description of the acid-base disorder:</span></p>

A 9 week old female intact Maltese cross presents for a 2-3 day history of severe vomiting and haemorrhagic diarrhoea (hematochezia). On presentation she is collapsed in shock. Select the most accurate description of the acid-base disorder:

Mixed disorder (primary metabolic acidosis (high AG) with primary respiratory acidosis

66
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A 9 week old female intact Maltese cross presents for a 2-3 day history of severe vomiting and haemorrhagic diarrhoea (hematochezia). On presentation she is collapsed in shock. Select the most likely cause of the hypokalemia in this case:

Increased gastrointestinal losses with decreased intake.

67
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Which of the following statements about thyroid hormone production is correct?

TRH stimulates the release of TSH from the pituitary.

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What is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in dogs?

Lymphocytic thyroiditis.

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<p><span>An 8-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with weight gain despite an unchanged appetite. A biochemical profile reveals hypercholesterolemia. What is the correct diagnosis?</span></p>

An 8-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with weight gain despite an unchanged appetite. A biochemical profile reveals hypercholesterolemia. What is the correct diagnosis?

Primary hypothyroidism.

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What pathological condition can decrease the concentration of ionised calcium?

Metabolic alkalosis

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What condition is commonly associated with non-thyroidal illness in dogs?

Hyperadrenocorticism.

72
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Which test has the highest sensitivity for diagnosing canine hypothyroidism?

Total T4

73
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What condition is most likely to be associated with an enlarged, pale-yellow liver?

Diabetes mellitus.

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Clinical findings on physical exam for Cushing’s Disease (Hyperadrenocorticism)

  • alopecia

  • muscle atrophy

  • pot belly

  • cutaneous hyperpigmentation

  • thin skin

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What is the pathophysiologic mechanism behind hypercalcaemia in malignancy?

PTH-rp secretion by neoplastic cells

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What is hyperviscosity syndrome?

  • paraneoplastic syndrome

  • often secondary to multiple myeloma

  • visual disturbances, neurological signs, bleeding

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What is Multiple Myeloma?

  • malignant neoplasia of plasma cells

  • oncontrolled prod. of IgG → hyperglobulinaemia → hyperviscosity syndrome

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Clinical Signs of Multiple Myeloma

  • hyperviscosity syndrome

  • bone pain + lameness

  • increased ALP (from bone)

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Which is the cell of origin for a cutaneous histiocytoma in the dog?

Langerhan’s cells

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Which of the following is the most benign of the conditions within the histiocytic disease complex?

canine cutaneous histiocytoma complex

81
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Humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy can be diagnosed by measuring increased circulating concentrations of which hormone?

Parathyroid hormone-related protein

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Which of the following peripheral lymph nodes may be palpable in a dog with lymphoma resulting in lymphadenomegaly, but not a normal dog?

Axillary

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Which diagnostic test is used to determine if hyperglobulinaemia is monoclonal or polyclonal?

Serum protein electrophoresis

84
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In which species are thymomas most common?

Goats

85
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Which clinical signs result from hyperviscosity syndrome in multiple myeloma?

Neurologic abnormalities

86
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<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

Siderotic plaque (incidental aging change, may secondary to previous trauma or haemorrhage).

87
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<p>What is the most likely aetiological agent associated with the gross findings?</p>

What is the most likely aetiological agent associated with the gross findings?

Marek’s Disease Virus

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<p><span>What is the likely aetiological agent?&nbsp;</span></p>

What is the likely aetiological agent? 

Burkholderia mallei

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An 8 year old female spayed Golden retriever presents for her annual vaccination. She has been clinically well. On physical examination she has enlarged prescapular, popliteal, and inguinal lymph nodes. Lymph node cytology confirms lymphoma. Bone marrow aspiration, and an ultrasound of her liver and spleen fail to detect any evidence of lymphoma in those organs.

Stage the lymphoma.

IIIa

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What retrovirus can cause lymphoma in cattle?

Bovine Leukosis Virus

91
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What retrovirus can cause lymphoma in cats?

FeLV

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What retroviruses can cause lymphoma in birds?

  • Marek’s disease

  • Lymphoid Leukosis Virus

93
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What is sarcopenia?

Loss of muscle mass.

94
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What might it mean if only albumin is reduced?

Whole blood loss (haemorrhage)

95
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What are the main differentials for a splenic mass?

  • haemangiosarcoma

  • nodular hyperplasia

  • haematoma

  • nodular lymphoma

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What is azotaemia?

Increase in creatine ± urea

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What is pre-renal azotaemia?

  • poor BF (perfusion) to kidneys → increase in creatinine and urea

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What is the normal USG for a dog?

USG > 1.030

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What is the normal USG for a cat?

USG > 1.035

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What does it mean if the USG is below the reference interval?

  • the urine is less concentrated (dilute)