Advanced Cardiac Life Support (3rd Ed.) – Key Provider Facts

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Question-and-answer flashcards summarizing essential ACLS provider knowledge: BLS, pediatric care, first aid, arrest algorithms, rhythms, drugs, airway, post-ROSC care, ACS, pacing, cardioversion, defibrillation and more.

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68 Terms

1
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What is the flagship goal of the Philippine Heart Association Council on CPR since 1982?

Continuous education and training of healthcare professionals in Basic and Advanced Cardiac Life Support.

2
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During the COVID-19 pandemic, what is the correct single-rescuer BLS sequence?

Ensure scene safety → put on PPE → cover the victim’s mouth/nose → check pulse and breathing.

3
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List the 5 Cs for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest during a pandemic in order.

Call → Cover → Check → Connect → Compress.

4
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What is the sixth link in the adult out-of-hospital chain of survival?

Recovery (post-resuscitation care & rehabilitation).

5
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Define ‘agonal gasps’ and their relevance to BLS.

Short, laboured, irregular breaths seen early in cardiac arrest; they are treated as NO BREATHING.

6
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Give the recommended adult chest-compression rate and depth.

100-120 compressions /min at 5-6 cm (2.0-2.4 in) depth.

7
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What compression-to-ventilation ratio is used for single-rescuer adult BLS without an advanced airway?

30 compressions : 2 breaths.

8
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State the two main components of CPR.

High-quality chest compressions and airway/rescue breathing.

9
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Which out-of-hospital arrhythmia is most common in adult cardiac arrest victims?

Ventricular fibrillation.

10
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How does an AED decide whether to deliver a shock?

It analyzes the victim’s rhythm and advises a shock only for shockable rhythms.

11
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Age cut-offs for infant, child, and adult BLS guidelines?

Infant: 28 days–<1 yr; Child: 1 yr–<8 yr; Adult: ≥8 yr.

12
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When do you use the ‘phone FAST’ strategy in pediatric BLS?

For unwitnessed collapse in children <8 yr—give 2 min of CPR, then activate EMS/AED.

13
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Where is the pulse checked in an infant?

Brachial artery.

14
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Describe the infant chest-compression technique preferred when two rescuers are present.

Two-thumb-encircling hands just below the nipple line at ≥1/3 AP diameter (~4 cm).

15
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What compression ratio is used by two rescuers in pediatric BLS without an advanced airway?

15 compressions : 2 breaths.

16
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First aid: What are the ‘3 Ps’ that summarize the goals of a first-aid provider?

Preserve life, Prevent further illness/injury, Promote recovery.

17
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Outline the BEFAST stroke assessment mnemonic.

Balance, Eyes, Face droop, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call EMS.

18
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Adult IM epinephrine dose for anaphylaxis?

0.3 mg of 1 mg/mL (1:1 000) solution into mid-lateral thigh.

19
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Why is activated charcoal NOT routinely given by first-aid rescuers?

Its benefits do not outweigh risks; should be given only under poison-control guidance.

20
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Describe the immediate management of witnessed electrocution.

Ensure power source is off, avoid contact until safe, then assess ABCs and start CPR if needed.

21
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Name the two shockable adult arrest rhythms.

Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

22
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What drug and dose are first-line for all adult cardiac arrests?

Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 min.

23
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State the first and second amiodarone doses in refractory VF/pVT.

300 mg IV push after 3rd shock, then 150 mg after 4th shock.

24
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List four reversible causes of PEA/Asystole remembered as the ‘Hs’.

Hypoxia, Hypovolemia, Hypo/Hyper-kalemia (metabolic), Hypothermia (also H+ acidosis).

25
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What ETCO₂ level (

An ETCO₂ persistently <10 mmHg.

26
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Define unstable bradycardia.

Heart rate usually <50 bpm producing hypotension, AMS, shock signs, ischemic chest pain or acute HF.

27
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First-line drug, dose, and max total dose for symptomatic bradycardia.

Atropine 1 mg IV every 3-5 min, max 3 mg.

28
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Give dopamine infusion range for bradycardia unresponsive to atropine.

5-20 µg/kg/min IV.

29
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When should transcutaneous pacing be started in bradycardia?

If drug therapy ineffective or patient severely symptomatic/hemodynamically unstable.

30
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Key question when approaching adult tachycardia (>100 bpm).

Is the patient stable or unstable (signs of poor perfusion)?

31
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First treatment for unstable wide-complex or narrow-complex tachycardia.

Immediate synchronized cardioversion.

32
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Initial adenosine dose for stable regular narrow-complex SVT.

6 mg rapid IV push followed by 20 mL saline flush.

33
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Energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of narrow-regular SVT.

50-100 J (biphasic).

34
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IV amiodarone dose and infusion time for stable monomorphic VT.

150 mg in 100 mL D5W over 10 min (15 mg/min).

35
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What does cricoid pressure do, and is it recommended in adult arrest?

Compresses esophagus to limit regurgitation but impedes ventilation; NOT routinely recommended.

36
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After advanced airway placement during CPR, give the ventilation rate.

1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) with continuous compressions.

37
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List two clinical and one waveform method to confirm correct ET-tube placement.

Bilateral chest rise/breath sounds, absence of epigastric sounds; waveform capnography ETCO₂ >30 mmHg.

38
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Maximum chest-compression pause allowed for endotracheal intubation.

39
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Recommended SpO₂ target after ROSC.

92-98 % (avoid both hypoxia and hyperoxia).

40
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Give target blood pressure goals after ROSC.

SBP >90 mmHg or MAP >65 mmHg.

41
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Define targeted temperature management (TTM).

Active control of core temperature 32-36 °C for ≥24 h in comatose post-arrest patients.

42
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How long should you wait before neurologic prognostication after TTM?

≥72 h after return to normothermia.

43
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List the BEFAST mnemonic purpose in post-arrest care.

To quickly identify post-arrest stroke requiring immediate action.

44
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Adult IM epinephrine weight-based dose for children 15-30 kg (anaphylaxis).

0.15 mg IM.

45
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Name the preferred vasoactive drug for septic or cardiogenic shock and its starting dose.

Norepinephrine 0.1-3 µg/kg/min IV infusion titrated to effect.

46
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What beta-blocker is included in ACLS for rate control and give its IV loading dose.

Esmolol 0.5 mg/kg IV over 1 min followed by infusion.

47
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List three contraindications to verapamil in tachyarrhythmia management.

Hypotension, heart failure with reduced EF, or severe ventricular dysfunction.

48
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Drug of choice for torsades de pointes and its dose.

Magnesium sulfate 1-2 g IV over 1-2 min (may repeat).

49
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Which ACLS drug can be given via endotracheal tube and at what dose multiple?

Epinephrine 2-2.5 mg diluted in 5-10 mL NS (2-2.5× IV dose).

50
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Define defibrillation.

Delivery of a high-energy unsynchronized shock to terminate VF or pulseless VT.

51
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Standard biphasic energy for adult defibrillation.

200 J (follow manufacturer’s recommendation).

52
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Why is ‘anticipatory charging’ of the defibrillator used?

Charging during compressions shortens peri-shock pauses (<5 s) to improve outcomes.

53
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Give initial energy doses for synchronized cardioversion of atrial fibrillation.

120-200 J biphasic (200 J monophasic).

54
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Explain ‘capture’ when setting transcutaneous pacing.

Each pacing stimulus produces a ventricular depolarization seen as a QRS complex with associated pulse.

55
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Preferred location to feel for mechanical capture during TCP.

Femoral artery (avoid carotid impulse confusion).

56
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List two relative contraindications to transcutaneous pacing.

Severe hypothermia and asystolic cardiac arrest.

57
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How far should defibrillator pads be placed from a permanent pacemaker?

8 cm, or use alternative pad positions (antero-posterior).

58
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Energy for initial cardioversion of stable monomorphic VT (with pulse).

100 J synchronized shock.

59
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What QRS width defines ‘wide-complex’ tachycardia?

QRS ≥0.12 s (≥3 small squares).

60
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Which ACLS drug increases potassium conductance and is first-line for SVT?

Adenosine.

61
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Dose escalation schedule for adenosine if first dose fails.

6 mg → 12 mg → 12 mg rapid IV pushes each followed by 20 mL flush.

62
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Most common adult out-of-hospital cardiac arrest etiology

Acute coronary syndrome / myocardial ischemia.

63
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When is fibrinolysis preferred over primary PCI in STEMI?

Symptom onset ≤2 h and PCI cannot be achieved within the guideline time; or any delay >120 min from first medical contact to balloon.

64
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List the mnemonic ‘MONA’ in initial ACS treatment.

Morphine (if pain), Oxygen (if SpO₂<90 %), Nitroglycerin, Aspirin 160-325 mg chew.

65
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Give the adult aspirin loading dose for suspected ACS.

162-325 mg chewed (preferably non-enteric-coated).

66
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Which coronary artery is usually implicated in inferior-wall MI?

Right coronary artery.

67
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What ST-segment criteria diagnose STEMI in V2-V3 for men ≥40 yrs?

ST elevation ≥2 mm (0.2 mV) in ≥2 contiguous leads.

68
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Explain why chest hair may require shaving before defibrillation.

Excess hair increases transthoracic impedance, reducing shock effectiveness by up to 35 %.