Intro to Clinical Pathways and Medicine Exam 1 Review

Which civilization is considered the cradle of modern Western medicine?

A) Egypt

B) China

C) Mesopotamia

D) Greece

D) Greece

Which of the following is NOT one of the four humors?

A) Blood

B) Phlegm

C) Yellow bile

D) Saliva

D) Saliva

The Edwin Smith Papyrus is primarily about:

A) Magical healing rituals

B) Astrology and medicine

C) Trauma surgery and diagnostics

D) Dietary herbs

C) Trauma surgery and diagnostics

What medical hierarchy existed in ancient Egypt?

A) Doctor < Chief < Inspector

B) Regular < Overseer < Chief < Eldest < Inspector

C) Junior < Senior < High Priest

D) Student < Physician < Royal Healer

B) Regular < Overseer < Chief < Eldest < Inspector

Who discovered blood circulation?

A) Hippocrates

B) Galen

C) William Harvey

D) Edward Jenner

C) William Harvey

Galen was allowed to dissect human cadavers.

A) True

B) False

B) False

Who introduced antiseptic surgery?

A) Semmelweis

B) Pasteur

C) Lister

D) Koch

C) Lister

Who discovered the causes of TB and cholera?

A) Fleming

B) Koch

C) Papanicolaou

D) Freud

B) Koch

What did George Papanicolaou pioneer?

A) Brain surgery

B) Antiseptic surgery

C) Vaginal smears for uterine cancer

D) Psychiatric diagnostics

C) Vaginal smears for uterine cancer

What is a "sign" in medical terms?

A) A subjective patient complaint

B) A measurable/observable change

C) A hereditary trait

D) A diagnostic technique

B) A measurable/observable change

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

A) Rash

B) Jaundice

C) Pain

D) Bruising

C) Pain

What is the definition of pathogenesis?

A) The cause of a disease

B) A structural change in tissue

C) The disease process

D) A treatment method

C) The disease process

What are the four pillars of disease understanding?

A) Humors, Infection, Fever, Bleeding

B) Etiology, Pathogenesis, Lesion, Functional changes

C) Genetics, Imaging, Diagnosis, Prognosis

D) Infection, Trauma, Mutation, Repair

B) Etiology, Pathogenesis, Lesion, Functional changes

Which of the following would be a histologic examination?

A) MRI scan

B) Blood pressure test

C) Viewing tissue under a microscope

D) Endoscopy

C) Viewing tissue under a microscope

Lesions can only be seen under a microscope.

A) True

B) False

B) False

Which of the following is not a typical diagnostic method?

A) Gross exam

B) Histology

C) Magic rituals

D) Imaging

C) Magic rituals

Who originally described the four cardinal signs of inflammation?

A) Hippocrates

B) Celsus

C) Galen

D) Jenner

B) Celsus

Which of the following is the fifth sign of inflammation added by Galen?

A) Vomiting

B) Bleeding

C) Fever

D) Functio laesa

D) Functio laesa

What is the dominant immune cell in Phase II (4-48 hrs) of inflammation?

A) B cells

B) Neutrophils

C) Macrophages

D) T cells

B) Neutrophils

Which phase of inflammation involves adaptive immunity?

A) Phase I

B) Phase II

C) Phase III

D) Phase IV

D) Phase IV

All the cardinal signs of inflammation are caused by infection.

A) True

B) False

B) False

Which of the following can mimic inflammation without being inflammatory?

A) Cellulitis

B) Pneumonia

C) Bruising

D) Appendicitis

C) Bruising

Which of the following is the most important initial consideration when diagnosing a patient?A) Family history

B) Job status

C) Whether it is an emergency or life-threatening

D) Previous surgeries

C) Whether it is an emergency or life-threatening

What is a key question when assessing the current illness?

A) Is the patient a smoker?

B) Is the patient taking vitamins?

C) Has the symptom occurred before and has it changed?

D) Has the patient traveled abroad?

C) Has the symptom occurred before and has it changed?

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a patient history?

A) Social history

B) Vital signs

C) Family medical history

D) Alcohol or drug use

B) Vital signs

What is the first step of a physical exam?

A) Ordering a CBC

B) Reviewing previous labs

C) Cultivating the art of observation

D) Taking X-rays

C) Cultivating the art of observation

Which of the following is considered a non-invasive diagnostic test?

A) Spinal tap

B) Endoscopy

C) Biopsy

D) MRI

D) MRI

Which of the following is considered an invasive procedure?

A) Eye inspection

B) Ultrasound

C) Blood draw

D) ECG

C) Blood draw

What does CBC stand for?

A) Complete Biological Chart

B) Circulatory Blood Count

C) Complete Blood Count

D) Comprehensive Body Chemistry

C) Complete Blood Count

What does a CMP typically include?

A) Antibody levels and glucose only

B) Electrolytes, liver enzymes, glucose, BUN, creatinine

C) Blood cultures and immunoglobulins

D) White blood cell subtypes

B) Electrolytes, liver enzymes, glucose, BUN, creatinine

Which test is now mainly used for myeloma and temporal arteritis?

A) ESR

B) ALT

C) CRP

D) AST

A) ESR

What test measures plasma proteins, antibodies, and hormones?

A) Urinalysis

B) ECG

C) Blood chemistry panels

D) CMP with serologies

D) CMP with serologies

Which of the following is NOT included in routine blood testing?

A) Albumin

B) ALT

C) Uric acid crystals

D) Creatinine

C) Uric acid crystals

What does a urine test help detect?

A) Lung capacity

B) Brain activity

C) Proteins, pH, microorganisms

D) Ejection fraction

C) Proteins, pH, microorganisms

What might a stool test look for?

A) Oxygenation

B) Bone density

C) Fat, blood, parasites

D) Red blood cell count

C) Fat, blood, parasites

What fluid is tested in a spinal tap?

A) Blood plasma

B) Peritoneal fluid

C) Cerebrospinal fluid

D) Pleural fluid

C) Cerebrospinal fluid

An increase in WBCs is called:

A) Leukopenia

B) Leukocytosis

C) Lymphocytopenia

D) Pancytopenia

B) Leukocytosis

A decrease in all cell lines in the blood is referred to as:

A) Polycythemia

B) Anemia

C) Pancytopenia

D) Granulocytosis

C) Pancytopenia

An increase in eosinophils is called:

A) Eosinopenia

B) Neutrophilia

C) Eosinophilia

D) Thrombocytopenia

C) Eosinophilia

What does thrombocytopenia mean?

A) High red blood cell count

B) Low neutrophil count

C) Low platelet count

D) High platelet count

C) Low platelet count

What type of cell is responsible for oxygen transport?

A) Platelets

B) Neutrophils

C) Red Blood Cells

D) Lymphocytes

C) Red Blood Cells

What does an ECG (EKG) measure?

A) Brain waves

B) Muscle contraction

C) Heart electrical activity

D) Oxygen levels

C) Heart electrical activity

What does an EEG measure?

A) Eye movement

B) Brain electrical activity

C) Muscle tone

D) Heart rhythm

B) Brain electrical activity

What does an EMG assess?

A) Liver function

B) Muscle electrical activity

C) Reflexes

D) Blood pressure

B) Muscle electrical activity

What heart structure initiates the electrical impulse in a normal ECG?

A) AV node

B) Bundle of His

C) Purkinje fibers

D) SA node

D) SA node

What does the P wave in an ECG represent?

A) Ventricular depolarization

B) Atrial depolarization

C) Ventricular repolarization

D) SA node failure

B) Atrial depolarization

What is the QRS complex responsible for?

A) Atrial contraction

B) Ventricular repolarization

C) Ventricular depolarization

D) Sinus bradycardia

C) Ventricular depolarization

What condition shows chaotic electrical activity on ECG and is life-threatening?

A) Sinus tachycardia

B) Ventricular fibrillation

C) AV block

D) Atrial flutter

B) Ventricular fibrillation

What does ST-elevation on ECG suggest?

A) Ischemic stroke

B) Myocardial infarction

C) Hypertension

D) Sepsis

B) Myocardial infarction

Who discovered X-rays in 1895?

A) Marie Curie

B) Thomas Edison

C) Wilhelm Roentgen

D) Niels Bohr

C) Wilhelm Roentgen

X-rays and gamma rays are forms of:

A) Radioactive particles

B) High-wavelength light

C) Electromagnetic radiation with short wavelengths

D) Mechanical pressure waves

C) Electromagnetic radiation with short wavelengths

The unit used today to measure radiation exposure to humans is:

A) Becquerel (Bq)

B) Roentgen (R)

C) Curie (Ci)

D) Sievert (Sv)

D) Sievert (Sv)

1 Sievert equals how many rems?

A) 10

B) 100

C) 1000

D) 0.1

B) 100

Exposure to 300 Sv/hr like in Chernobyl’s control room would cause:

A) Temporary nausea

B) Skin rash

C) Death in 1 minute

D) Hair loss

C) Death in 1 minute

Which of the following technologies is used to digitize X-rays?

A) Gamma cameras

B) Phosphor plates

C) PET scanners

D) Geiger counters

B) Phosphor plates

What does a CT scan primarily use to create 3D images?

A) Magnetic fields

B) Ultrasound waves

C) Serial X-ray images

D) Infrared lasers

C) Serial X-ray images

Which imaging technique has higher overall radiation exposure than standard X-ray?

A) CT scan

B) MRI

C) Ultrasound

D) EEG

A) CT scan

What is used to enhance contrast in certain X-ray or CT studies?

A) Saline

B) Gadolinium

C) Barium or iodine-based contrast

D) Gelatin

C) Barium or iodine-based contrast

What is the purpose of nuclear medicine scans (e.g., I-131)?

A) Visualize bone injuries

B) Enrich radioactive tracers in high-activity tissues

C) Reduce tissue inflammation

D) Monitor lung function

B) Enrich radioactive tracers in high-activity tissues

What does an MRI use for imaging?

A) Gamma rays

B) Electrical currents

C) Sound waves

D) Magnetic fields and radio waves

D) Magnetic fields and radio waves

What is the bright tissue in T1-weighted MRI images?

A) Muscle

B) Water

C) Fat

D) Bone

C) Fat

What tissues are bright in T2-weighted MRI?

A) Only fat

B) Fat and water

C) Muscle and blood

D) Cartilage and skin

B) Fat and water

What contrast agent is commonly used in MRI to highlight vessels?

A) Barium

B) Gadolinium

C) Iodine

D) Technetium

B) Gadolinium

Which imaging method is best for soft tissue resolution?

A) CT

B) X-ray

C) PET

D) MRI

D) MRI

Ultrasound works by emitting:

A) Electromagnetic radiation

B) Radioactive tracers

C) High-frequency sound waves

D) Electrical impulses

C) High-frequency sound waves

What does the transducer in ultrasound detect?A) Color gradients

B) Light intensity

C) Magnetic pulses

D) Echoes from tissue interfaces

D) Echoes from tissue interfaces

Which of the following is NOT true about ultrasound?

A) It's non-invasive and painless

B) It involves ionizing radiation

C) It uses sound waves

D) It can assess internal organs

B) It involves ionizing radiation

Which procedure preserves tissue architecture?A) Cytology

B) Histology

C) Frozen smear

D) Radiography

B) Histology

What type of test uses single cells without preserving structure?

A) Histology

B) MRI

C) Cytology

D) CT

C) Cytology

Which of the following is an example of cytologic sampling?

A) Colon biopsy

B) Breast biopsy

C) Pap smear

D) Frozen section

C) Pap smear

Why are tissues embedded in paraffin during processing?

A) To add contrast

B) To preserve moisture

C) To allow thin slicing

D) To sterilize tissue

C) To allow thin slicing

What is the purpose of a frozen section?

A) Detecting fluid in lungs

B) Quickly analyzing tissue during surgery

C) Growing bacterial cultures

D) Performing genetic tests

B) Quickly analyzing tissue during surgery

What does H&E staining target?

A) Only cytoplasm

B) Hemoglobin in red blood cells

C) Nuclei (blue) and cytoplasm (pink/red)

D) DNA and mitochondria

C) Nuclei (blue) and cytoplasm (pink/red)

Which special stain highlights glycogen or fungi?

A) Hematoxylin

B) PAS

C) Trichrome

D) Giemsa

B) PAS

What does Masson's Trichrome stain help visualize?

A) Bacteria

B) Collagen in fibrosis

C) Fat deposits

D) Cell membranes

B) Collagen in fibrosis

What does immunofluorescence staining allow detection of?

A) Only DNA

B) Nerve impulses

C) Specific proteins or antibodies

D) Chromosomes

C) Specific proteins or antibodies

What happens when adaptive mechanisms in cells fail?

A) They produce antibodies

B) They undergo transformation

C) They become injured or die

D) They form new organs

C) They become injured or die

Which of the following is a macroscopic change at the organ level?

A) Mallory bodies

B) Hemosiderin inclusions

C) Atrophy

D) Multi-nucleation

C) Atrophy

Which of the following is a microscopic change in liver disease?

A) Hypertrophy

B) Fatty inclusions

C) Dysplasia

D) Loss of perfusion

B) Fatty inclusions

Mallory bodies in the liver are associated with:

A) Diabetes

B) Alcohol use

C) Obesity

D) Viral hepatitis

B) Alcohol use

The blue-stained pigment seen with Prussian Blue staining is:

A) Lipofuscin

B) Uric acid

C) Hemosiderin

D) Melanin

C) Hemosiderin

Hypertrophy is defined as:

A) Increase in cell number

B) Decrease in organ size

C) Change in cell type

D) Increase in cell size

D) Increase in cell size

Hyperplasia occurs only in:

A) Non-dividing cells

B) Neurons

C) Dividing cells

D) Mature RBCs

C) Dividing cells

What is atrophy?

A) Increase in cell size

B) Loss of blood vessels

C) Shrinkage of cells or organs

D) Tissue necrosis

C) Shrinkage of cells or organs

Physiologic atrophy is seen in which of the following?

A) Uterus after pregnancy

B) Alzheimer's disease

C) Muscle disuse

D) Diabetic kidney

A) Uterus after pregnancy

Metaplasia refers to:

A) Cell death

B) Change from one cell type to another

C) Cell transformation into cancer

D) Cell shrinkage

B) Change from one cell type to another

Which epithelial type lines blood vessels and alveoli?

A) Columnar

B) Cuboidal

C) Squamous

D) Transitional

C) Squamous

What epithelium is found in the gut and gallbladder?

A) Simple squamous

B) Cuboidal

C) Columnar

D) Transitional

C) Columnar

Which epithelium type is found in kidney tubules and thyroid?

A) Squamous

B) Cuboidal

C) Columnar

D) Transitional

B) Cuboidal

What does stratified squamous epithelium line?

A) Brain and spinal cord

B) Stomach and intestines

C) Mouth, esophagus, vagina

D) Blood vessels

C) Mouth, esophagus, vagina

Metaplasia in smokers' upper airways often results in:

A) Columnar to squamous metaplasia

B) Cuboidal to columnar

C) Squamous to cuboidal

D) Ciliated to transitional

A) Columnar to squamous metaplasia

Barrett’s esophagus involves metaplasia of which type?

A) Squamous to squamous

B) Squamous to columnar

C) Columnar to cuboidal

D) Cuboidal to transitional

B) Squamous to columnar

Which of the following is not a cause of cell death?

A) Oxygen deprivation

B) Fever

C) Genetic defects

D) Immune reactions

B) Fever

What kind of cell death is silent and programmed?

A) Necrosis

B) Hyperplasia

C) Apoptosis

D) Liquefaction

C) Apoptosis

Apoptosis is typically associated with:

A) Inflammation

B) Cell swelling and rupture

C) DNA laddering

D) Mitochondrial overgrowth

C) DNA laddering

DNA fragmentation into 280 bp units in apoptosis is due to:

A) DNase II

B) Caspase-activated DNase (CAD)

C) Histone methylation

D) Telomerase

B) Caspase-activated DNase (CAD)

In apoptosis, cells are removed by:

A) Necrosis

B) Diffusion

C) Phagocytosis

D) Lysis

C) Phagocytosis

Which of the following is a hallmark of necrosis?A) Fragmentation

B) Nuclear swelling only

C) Inflammation

D) Cell shrinkage

C) Inflammation

Which tissue usually undergoes liquefactive necrosis?

A) Heart

B) Brain

C) Liver

D) Skin

B) Brain

Which necrosis is seen in hypoxic infarcts like myocardial infarction?

A) Liquefactive

B) Fat necrosis

C) Coagulative

D) Caseous

C) Coagulative