Corrections MIDTERM 2

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77 Terms

1
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Q: What is the main goal behind developing alternatives to confinement?

A: To address prison overcrowding and shift correctional philosophy from punishment and isolation to reintegrative and restorative approaches.

2
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Q: What are the main drivers for alternatives to incarceration?

A: Rising costs of imprisonment and research questioning incarceration’s effectiveness as deterrence.

3
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Q: Define diversion.

A: Programs designed to keep individuals who engaged in criminal behaviour from further processing in the formal justice system.

4
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Q: What are key objectives of diversion programs?

A: Prevent further justice system involvement, reduce costs and stigma, and address causes of offending through restorative approaches.

5
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Q: At what stages can diversion occur?

A: Pre-charge, post-charge, and post-sentencing.

6
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Q: What is “net-widening”?

A: When diversion programs unintentionally bring more people into the justice system who would otherwise have been released.

7
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Q: Define intermediate sanctions.

A: Penalties between probation and incarceration, including fines, community service, intensive supervision, and electronic monitoring.

8
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Q: What are the offender- vs. system-oriented objectives of intermediate sanctions?

A:

  • Offender-oriented: Ensure punishment, retribution, and control.

  • System-oriented: Reduce institutional populations, costs, and recidivism.

9
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Q: Define electronic monitoring (EM).

A: The use of electronic equipment (often GPS) to ensure offenders comply with supervision conditions.

10
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Q: What is a conditional sentence?

A: A sentence that allows eligible offenders—who would otherwise be jailed for less than two years—to serve their time in the community under strict conditions (s.742 Criminal Code).

11
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Q: How does a conditional sentence differ from probation?

A: Conditional sentences include punitive elements and stricter conditions; probation focuses more on rehabilitation.

12
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Q: According to the Supreme Court of Canada in R. v. Proulx, what two factors determine a conditional sentence’s appropriateness?

A: (1) Risk of reoffending, and (2) potential harm if reoffending occurs.

13
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Q: Define probation.

A: A court-ordered community supervision sentence managed by a probation officer, either standalone or combined with custody or fines.

14
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Q: What are key statutory conditions of probation?

A: Keeping the peace, obeying the law, and other judge-imposed conditions (e.g., abstinence, treatment programs).

15
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Q: What is the maximum length of probation?

A: Three years.

16
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Q: How does probation differ from parole?

A:

  • Probation is imposed by courts; applies mainly to provincial offenders.

  • Parole is granted by parole boards; applies to offenders released from custody.

17
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Q: Define pre-sentence report (PSR).

A: A document prepared by a probation officer for the sentencing judge, containing details about the offender’s history, risks, and needs.

18
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Q: What are the “pains of probation”?

A: Emotional/economic challenges faced by probationers (loss of autonomy, stigma, employment issues).

19
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Q: What are the three core principles of effective correctional intervention?

A:

  1. Risk principle: Match intensity to offender risk.

  2. Need principle: Target criminogenic needs.

  3. Responsivity principle: Match interventions to individual learning styles and motivation.

20
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Q: What is the STICS program?

A: Strategic Training Initiative in Community Supervision—teaches probation officers how to apply RNR principles with focus on trust-building and change-oriented supervision.

21
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Q: What is motivational interviewing?

A: A technique empowering offenders to change behaviour through collaborative, non-confrontational dialogue.

22
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Q: What is victim–offender mediation (VOM)?

A: Restorative meetings allowing victims and offenders to discuss harm and promote healing and accountability.

23
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Q: Describe the Community Holistic Circle Healing Program.

A: An Indigenous restorative justice initiative with 13 healing phases addressing family and community healing after abuse.

24
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Q: What does research show about conditional sentences and restorative justice?

A: Conditional sentences can reduce recidivism; restorative programs increase victim satisfaction and lower reoffending rates.

25
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Q: What are the three federal security levels?

A: Minimum, Medium, Maximum.

26
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Q: What is the Special Handling Unit (SHU)?

A: A federal facility for inmates too dangerous for even maximum-security prisons.

27
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Q: Define dynamic and static security.

A:

  • Static: Physical barriers, surveillance, alarms.

  • Dynamic: Staff–inmate interaction, observation, communication.

28
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Q: What is the direct supervision model?

A: Officers are stationed inside inmate housing units to foster positive relationships and manage behaviour proactively.

29
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Q: What is a total institution?

A: A facility where all inmate movements and activities are controlled 24/7 by staff (e.g., prisons, mental hospitals).

30
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Q: What are healing lodges?

A: Culturally based correctional facilities for Indigenous offenders under Section 81 of the CCRA, integrating community, Elders, and ceremony.

31
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Q: What is remand?

A: Remand is the detention of an accused person in custody while they await trial, sentencing, or the start of a jail term. It applies to individuals who have been charged but either haven’t yet appeared before a judge or have been denied bail.

32
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Q: What are consequences of prison overcrowding?

A: Increased violence, double-bunking, reduced programming, and focus on containment over rehabilitation.

33
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Q: What is the split personality of corrections?

A: The dual goal of ensuring security while promoting rehabilitation.

34
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Q: What is the Northern Bail Project?

A: A 2021 BC program allowing remote bail hearings to improve access to justice in northern communities.

35
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Q: What are four key principles of trauma-informed practice?

A: Trauma awareness; choice, collaboration, and connection; safety and trust; strengths-based skill building.

36
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Q: What is FASD and its correctional relevance?

A: Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder—causes cognitive deficits; linked to poor judgment, planning, and reasoning skills among offenders.

37
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Q: What are common causes of riots or disturbances in prisons?

A: Overcrowding, staff misconduct, gang disputes, poor conditions, inadequate food, and mismanagement.

38
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Q: Define interdiction vs prevention strategies.

A:

  • Interdiction: Reducing illegal activities (drugs, contraband).

  • Prevention: Reducing risk behaviours (e.g., HIV prevention).

39
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Q: What is the RNR model?

A: A correctional framework emphasizing Risk (who), Need (what), and Responsivity (how) for effective offender rehabilitation.

40
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Q: What is classification in corrections?

A: Using assessment tools to determine inmates’ security level, placement, and programming needs.

41
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Q: What are static vs dynamic risk factors?

A:

  • Static: Historical, unchangeable (e.g., criminal history).

  • Dynamic: Changeable through intervention (e.g., education, addiction).

42
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Q: Define criminogenic needs.

A: Dynamic risk factors directly contributing to criminal behaviour (e.g., antisocial peers, substance abuse).

43
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Q: What is the Correctional Plan?

A: A personalized rehabilitation roadmap specifying institutional placement, treatment, and release preparation.

44
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Q: What is the Custody Rating Scale (CRS)?

A: A CSC tool determining initial security classification based on factors like offence, sentence length, and prior infractions.

45
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Q: What biases exist in CSC risk assessments?

A: Indigenous and Black inmates are overclassified into higher security levels, limiting program access.

46
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Q: What is differential treatment effectiveness?

A: The idea that programs must be tailored to the unique needs and risks of each offender to reduce recidivism.

47
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Q: What are the three major youth justice acts in Canada’s history?

A:

  1. Juvenile Delinquents Act (1908) – social welfare approach.

  2. Young Offenders Act (1984) – accountability and rights.

  3. Youth Criminal Justice Act (2003) – emphasizes extrajudicial measures and proportionality.

48
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Q: What are the YCJA’s three objectives (s.3(1)(a)(i–iii))?

A: Accountability, rehabilitation/reintegration, and crime prevention.

49
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Q: What are extrajudicial measures?

A: Non-court alternatives (warnings, referrals, community programs) for less serious youth offences.

50
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Q: What factors explain Indigenous youth overrepresentation?

A: Intergenerational trauma, substance abuse, poverty, family violence, low education, and child welfare involvement.

51
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Q: What are crossover youth?

A: Youth involved in both child protection and youth justice systems.

52
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Q: What are the key restorative justice outcomes for youth?

A: Higher victim/offender satisfaction and up to 30% reduction in recidivism.

53
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Q: What is the most common youth sentence?

A: Probation, often combined with community service.

54
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Q: Define intensive rehabilitative custody and supervision order.

A: A sentence combining intensive treatment in custody followed by supervised community reintegration for serious youth offences.

55
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Q: What assessment tools are used for youth risk?

A: LS/CMI (Level of Service/Case Management Inventory) and SAVRY (Structured Assessment of Violent Risk in Youth).

56
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Q: What is a Youth Justice Committee (YJC)?

A: Community-based program using restorative justice to address harm, facilitate victim–offender reconciliation, and reduce recidivism.

57
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Q: What interventions are most effective for youth?

A: RNR-based, multi-systemic, cognitive-behavioural, and family-focused programs

58
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Q: What is the difference between a conditional discharge and a suspended sentence?

A:

  • Conditional discharge: No conviction is registered if the offender obeys probation terms.

  • Suspended sentence: The conviction is entered, but the jail term is suspended pending successful probation.

59
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Q: What is Section 810 recognizance? (peace bond)

A: A preventive court order that sets conditions (like “keep the peace” or “stay away from someone”) for up to 12 months when a person is considered a possible risk of causing harm, even if they haven’t been convicted of a crime.

60
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Q: What are clustered institutions?

A: Multiple federal institutions on one site, each with its own security level but shared administration.

61
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Q: What distinguishes actuarial from structured professional-judgment risk assessments?

A:

  • Actuarial assessments use statistical formulas and fixed scoring to predict risk (e.g., adding up scores based on age, criminal history, etc.). The result is a numerical probability of reoffending — it’s objective but doesn’t account for personal context.

  • Structured professional-judgment (SPJ) assessments use checklists and professional interpretation. The assessor reviews evidence-based risk factors but applies their judgment to decide the overall level of risk, allowing for individual circumstances and context.

62
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What are multilevel institutions?

A: Federal correctional institutions that contain more than one security level (e.g., minimum, medium, and maximum) within the same facility.

63
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Q: What are regional treatment centres?

A: Federal correctional institutions that function as accredited hospitals or psychiatric facilities, providing specialized inpatient treatment and assessments for inmates with serious physical or mental health needs.

64
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Q: What are community correctional centres?

A: Residential facilities operated by CSC that house federal offenders released into the community under statutory release, parole, or long-term supervision orders.

65
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Q: What is the unit management model?

A: A supervisory structure used in many provincial and territorial correctional institutions where each unit has a manager who oversees COs, classification officers, and support staff, and is responsible for security, case management, programs, and health and safety.

66
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Q: What is bail?

A: The temporary release of a person charged with a crime while waiting for trial or sentencing, usually under conditions set by the court

67
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Q: What are offence-specific and offender-specific programs?

A: Offence-specific programs target particular types of offences (e.g., sex offences), while offender-specific programs address the individual risks and needs of offenders (e.g., substance abuse or anger management).

68
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Q: What is general responsivity?

A: The principle that correctional treatment works best when delivered using social-learning and cognitive-behavioural methods that promote and reinforce prosocial behaviour.

69
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Q: What is correctional case management?

A: A process that matches offenders’ needs and abilities with appropriate correctional programs and services to support rehabilitation and reintegration.

70
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Q: What is the Integrated Correctional Program Model (ICPM)?

A: A multi- and interdisciplinary CSC approach that teaches offenders skills to reduce risky or harmful behaviour and to change negative attitudes, beliefs, and associations.

71
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Q: What is the Circle of Care?

A: CSC’s Indigenous stream of correctional programming for federally sentenced Indigenous women, emphasizing culturally informed teachings, ceremonies, and healing to prepare women for reintegration.

72
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Q: What is differential amenability to treatment?

A: The idea that not all inmates are equally receptive to programming and that interventions must be adapted to meet their specific needs, abilities, and interests.

73
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Q: What is program fidelity?

A: The degree to which a correctional program is delivered as originally designed. Lower fidelity (e.g., when COs deliver core programs without proper training) can weaken effectivenessc

74
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Q: What is program drift?

A: When a correctional program gradually deviates from its original design, potentially reducing its effectiveness and compromising the integrity of the intervention.

75
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Q: What is therapeutic integrity?

A: The quality and consistency of correctional programming, which depends on the training, skill set, and supervision of staff delivering treatment programs.

76
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Whats is the recommendation for federally sentenced women on where they should start in terms of security

they should initially be placed in minimum-security institutions whenever possible, unless specific risk factors indicate otherwise.

77
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Q: What does rigidity mean in correctional institutions?

A: A rigid environment is one that’s highly structured and rule-bound, where inmates have little autonomy and daily life follows strict routines. While it maintains order, it can limit rehabilitation, increase stress, and make prisons feel dehumanizing for inmates.