CDC Volume 1 Infection Control & Radiology

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80 Terms

1
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Who appoints the Special Consultant for Infection Control?

USAF Assistant Surgeon General for Dental Services

2
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Who develops and publishes guidelines for the USAF Dental Infection Control Program?

Dental Infection Control Officer

3
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What is the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?

A Federal rule that sets forth specific requirements to prevent the transmission of bloodborne diseases to employees.

4
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When must the exposure-control plan be reviewed and who should have access to it?

At least annually; all employees and OSHA.

5
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Who determines the minimum training requirements for bloodborne pathogen exposure?

OSHA

6
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How many days does an employer have to provide a written opinion after post-exposure evaluation?

15

7
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How long must OSHA medical records be kept and from which employment date?

30 years; from the last date of employment.

8
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Who must have access to training and medical records under OSHA?

Employees and the Assistant Secretary of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

9
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What are large droplets of saliva-borne microorganisms called?

Splatter

10
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What percent can antiseptic mouthwash reduce bacteria?

90

11
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How long should water/air lines be flushed between patients?

20-30 seconds

12
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When must hepatitis B vaccination be made available to employees?

Within 10 calendar days of initial assignment.

13
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According to what recommendations must hepatitis B vaccine be administered?

US Public Health Service routine and booster dose recommendations.

14
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What infection control standard assumes all patients are infectious?

Standard precautions

15
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What type of control isolates or removes bloodborne pathogens in the dental room?

Engineering

16
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What type of controls reduce exposure likelihood by altering task performance?

Work practice

17
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When are gloves required?

When hand contact with blood and saliva is reasonably anticipated.

18
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Who must wear protective eyewear when aerosols are likely?

Dental health team and patient

19
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When must an employer launder clothing under the OSH Act?

When exposure to blood or other potentially infectious material (OPIM) is reasonably anticipated.

20
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What clothing must be worn during ultrasonic scaling procedures?

Long-sleeved clothing or gowns in combination with head and shoe covers.

21
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What must be done before shipping equipment off-site that may be contaminated?

Decontaminate it to the extent feasible or label as a biohazard, indicating which parts could not be decontaminated.

22
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How must contaminated sharps be discarded?

In closable, puncture-resistant, leak-proof containers that are red or labeled with the biohazard symbol.

23
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What is considered contaminated laundry?

All protective clothing and only contaminated clinical attire.

24
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Into how many categories are environmental surfaces divided?

Two

25
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What is the first step in creating a safe environment?

Cleaning

26
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Which microbes are least resistant to disinfectants?

Vegetative bacteria

27
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What is the most resistant life form to disinfectants?

Bacterial endospores

28
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Which is not a level of chemical disinfectant recognized by the EPA?

Intermediate

29
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What are agents that inhibit bacterial growth but do not kill them called?

Bacteriostatics

30
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What do high-level disinfectants kill?

Vegetative bacteria, fungi, tubercle bacillus, and bacterial spores.

31
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What level of disinfectant is used on semicritical items?

Intermediate

32
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What disinfectants are classified as low-level?

Simple phenolics.

33
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Which is not a property of an ideal disinfectant?

A residual effect on treated surfaces that is activated when surfaces are dry.

34
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What affects the efficacy of chemical disinfectants most?

Organic matter

35
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What is reuse life?

The period a solution can be reused while remaining effective.

36
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What are examples of acceptable intermediate-level hospital disinfectants?

Alcohols, iodophors, synthetic phenolics, and chlorine-containing compounds.

37
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What fluid should iodophors be diluted in?

Distilled or softened water

38
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What is effective when diluted in iodophors?

Iodophors.

39
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Which disinfectant is not effective in the presence of tissue proteins?

Alcohols.

40
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When should you clean and disinfect environmental surfaces in the DTR?

When barriers are compromised or surfaces are visibly soiled.

41
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What sterilization methods are accepted in the USAF?

Steam under pressure (gravity or prevacuum) and dry heat.

42
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What method is used to sterilize heat-sensitive items?

Ethylene oxide.

43
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What factors are most important for sterilization using steam under pressure?

Steam temperature and exposure time.

44
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What is the best method for loading sterilization chambers?

Place packages on edge; large packs below, small packs above.

45
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What is the final step after washer-sterilization?

Terminal sterilization.

46
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What is the correct temperature and time for dry heat sterilization?

350°F for 2 hours or 375°F for 1 hour.

47
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What is the rapid heat sterilization method?

375°F for 12 minutes.

48
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What indicates that a pack has been processed through sterilization?

Chemical indicators.

49
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How often should spore testing be performed?

Every cycle.

50
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Where is the ultrasonic cleaner located in the DTF?

Decontamination area.

51
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When must you decontaminate dental instruments in the DTR?

Never.

52
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Which of the following is not a correct procedure for using the ultrasonic cleaner?

Using disinfectant, plain water, or soap as the solution.

53
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Which method should be used to sterilize nylon tubing?

Steam.

54
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What method should be used to sterilize aluminum trays?

Dry heat.

55
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Where should you not place sterilized items after drying?

On metal or cold surfaces.

56
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When should you resterilize a pack?

If the wrapper becomes wet, touches the floor, or contamination is suspected.

57
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What is the correct way to recap a needle?

Scoop technique or a recapping device.

58
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How should dental handpieces be processed after use?

Heat sterilized.

59
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When are barriers used in radiology?

When there is contamination by spatter or contact.

60
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How should imaging plates be disinfected?

With intermediate-level disinfectant.

61
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Where should impressions be initially rinsed?

Dental treatment room (DTR).

62
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Which impression materials can be disinfected without damage?

Polyether and alginate.

63
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What is an example of a digital image receptor?

An image plate.

64
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What does the image scanner process?

Image plates.

65
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What is an advantage of digital radiography?

You can adjust contrast or density.

66
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What is a key element of the digital system?

X-ray machine.

67
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What should you refer to before using digital equipment?

Manufacturer's instructions.

68
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What type of image allows you to view more teeth?

Digital image.

69
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Which type of film must be processed in a processor?

PSP plate.

70
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How many types of radiation are produced?

Three.

71
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What does density in a radiograph refer to?

Darkness or blackness of the image.

72
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What does contrast help identify in radiographs?

Differences between light and dark areas.

73
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What term describes a white appearance on a radiograph?

Radiopaque.

74
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How many images are usually taken during a full mouth series?

Two.

75
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Which anatomical reference should the bitewing sensor be aligned with?

Occlusal plane.

76
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What software is used to capture and view radiographs?

MiPACS.

77
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What software should you use to send digital radiographs to a provider?

MiPACS.

78
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How do you view a patient's images in MiPACS?

Double click on patient's name.

79
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How should you label a radiograph file?

Letter -a1.

80
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How should radiographs be ordered in a chart?

Same order as in the mouth.