MT 116: LEC 5 - QUALITY ASSURANCE AND QUALITY CONTROL

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Clinical Chemistry

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91 Terms

1
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What does Quality Assurance ensure in the lab?

Accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of test results.

2
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In which stage do most lab errors occur?

Pre-analytical stage (≈70%).

3
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Who is mainly involved in the analytical stage?

The Medical Technologist and the analyzer.

4
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What is checked in post-analytical QA?

Results, reporting, interpretation, and communication with physicians.

5
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What does "Pre–A–Post" stand for?

Patient → Analyzer → Physician.

6
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What are the 4 main components of the Quality Management Framework?

Quality Planning, Quality Assessment, Quality Improvement, Quality Control.

7
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Which part of QMF creates SOPs and personnel policies?

Quality Planning.

8
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Which QMF step monitors lab performance and verifies quality of results?

Quality Assessment.

9
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Which QMF step eliminates causes of problems?

Quality Improvement.

10
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Which QMF step is limited to the analytical process only?

Quality Control.

11
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What is the difference between a standard and a control?

Standard = calibrates assay; Control = checks performance after calibration.

12
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How many times should controls be run for QC validation?

20 times over 30 days.

13
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What chart is used to monitor QC results?

Levey-Jennings chart.

14
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According to CLIA, how often should QC be performed with Level 1 & 2 controls?

Once a day.

15
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If a lab has only Level 1 control, how often should QC be done?

Twice a day.

16
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How many days minimum are needed for QC evaluation?

20 days (Levey-Jennings chart).

17
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What does internal QC monitor?

Daily accuracy and precision.

18
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What does external QC monitor?

Long-term accuracy (via proficiency testing).

19
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Which organization handles NEQAS in the Philippines?

Lung Center of the Philippines.

20
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What does NEQAS do to assess clinical chemistry labs?

Sends unknown specimens for testing and comparison.

21
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What does PCQACL stand for?

Philippine Council for Quality Assurance in Clinical Laboratory.

22
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What does accuracy mean in internal QC?

Ability to obtain the established or “true” value.

23
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What does precision mean in internal QC?

Ability to obtain the same value on repeat measurements.

24
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Accuracy is related to what concept?

Correctness of a result.

25
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Precision is related to what concept?

Reproducibility/consistency of results.

26
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What’s the ideal lab result characteristic?

Both accurate and precise.

27
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What does sensitivity measure?

The % of diseased individuals correctly identified by the test (true positives).

28
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What does specificity measure?

The % of healthy individuals correctly identified as disease-free (true negatives).

29
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Which test parameter is better for ruling out disease?

Sensitivity (SnNout).

30
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Which test parameter is better for ruling in disease?

Specificity (SpPin).

31
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What does Positive Predictive Value (PPV) mean?

% of people with positive test results who actually have the disease.

32
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What does Negative Predictive Value (NPV) mean?

% of people with negative test results who are truly disease-free.

33
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Which factor affects predictive values but not sensitivity/specificity?

Disease prevalence.

34
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Which is NOT a requirement for a QC material?

Independence from assay method.

35
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What type of curve is used in a Levey-Jennings chart?

Normal/Gaussian distribution curve.

36
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What are the warning limits in a Levey-Jennings chart?

±2 standard deviations (SD).

37
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What should be done if results fall between 2s and 3s?

Repeat the analysis (possible error).

38
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What are the rejection limits in a Levey-Jennings chart?

±3 standard deviations (SD).

39
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What should be done if results fall beyond ±3s?

Stop testing, hold patient results, and investigate the system.

40
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What is the main purpose of Westgard multi-rules?

To decide whether to accept or reject a QC run.

41
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Which Westgard rule is a warning rule, not a rejection?

1-2s.

42
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What type of error does 1-3s indicate?

Random error.

43
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What type of error does 2-2s indicate?

Systematic error.

44
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Which rule means 10 consecutive results on one side of the mean?

10x → Systematic error.

45
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What does a skewed Gaussian distribution in a control chart suggest?

Data problems (e.g., small sample size, flawed sampling).

46
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What completes a lab QC program aside from internal QC?

External QC (e.g., proficiency testing, inspections).

47
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What parameter checks Random Error?

SD & CV.

48
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What parameter checks Systematic Error?

Mean (𝑋̅).

49
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Give 2 examples of Random Error causes.

Pipetting error, voltage fluctuation.

50
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Give 2 examples of Systematic Error causes.

Improper calibration, deteriorated reagents.

51
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First step if control value falls outside acceptable range?

Don’t release patient test results.

52
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Where do you record unresolved QC problems?

Out-of-Control Logbook.

53
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What must be done once the QC problem is resolved?

Rerun patient specimens and re-evaluate past results.

54
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What does a trend in QC mean?

A gradual change in the mean in one direction.

55
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What does a trend indicate?

Gradual loss of reliability in the test system.

56
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Give 2 common causes of a trend.

Reagent deterioration, calibrator deterioration.

57
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How is trend different from shift?

Trend = gradual drift, Shift = sudden change.

58
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What does a shift in QC mean?

An abrupt change in the mean that becomes continuous.

59
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How do QC values appear in a shift?

All on one side of the mean (above or below).

60
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Main cause of a shift?

Improper calibration.

61
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Difference between trend and shift?

  • Trend = gradual change; Shift = sudden change.

62
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What are the 2 key factors in error detection?

Probability of error detection and probability of false rejection.

63
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What does “probability of error detection” mean?

Ability of QC to catch errors beyond normal instrument imprecision.

64
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What does “probability of false rejection” mean?

Chance of QC showing an alarm when no error exists.

65
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What are the Five W’s in error investigation?

What, Where, When, Who, Why.

66
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What does dispersion in QC mean?

Control values are widely scattered in an unexplained pattern.

67
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What does dispersion usually indicate?

Increased imprecision in the test system.

68
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How is dispersion different from trend and shift?

Trend = gradual drift, Shift = sudden jump, Dispersion = random scatter.

69
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What does the mean represent?

The average of all data points, related to accuracy.

70
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Formula for mean?

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71
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What is the median?

The middle value when data is arranged in order.

72
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How is median calculated for an even number of values?

Average of the two middle values.

73
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What is the mode?

The most frequently occurring value.

74
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Which measure is least affected by outliers?

Median.

75
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Formula for variance?

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76
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What does SD measure in lab QC?

The precision (random error).

77
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What does a large SD indicate?

Poor precision, more random error.

78
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Confidence interval values for ±1, ±2, ±3 SD?

68.2%, 95.5%, 99.7%.

79
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Formula for CV?

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80
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Acceptable CV limit for repeated lab tests?

Less than 5%.

81
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What is a delta check used for?

Comparing current and previous patient results for consistency.

82
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What is a Youden Plot used for?

Detecting within- and between-laboratory variability.

83
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Who pioneered Six Sigma and when?

Motorola, 1980s.

84
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What does 6𝛿 compliance mean?

Only 3.4 defects per million opportunities.

85
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Difference between Six Sigma and Lean?

Six Sigma = removes variation/errors; Lean = removes waste.

86
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What does DMAIC stand for?

Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control.

87
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What is TEa in lab QC?

Total Allowable Error = maximum acceptable error limit.

88
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Formula for Sigma Metric?

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89
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What does DPMO stand for?

Defects Per Million Opportunities.

90
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Acceptable defects in Six Sigma per million?

3.4.

91
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Which Six Sigma belt level oversees implementation at an executive level?

Champion.