Lab Animal Technical Skills (test your understanding)

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Last updated 7:15 PM on 7/6/26
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77 Terms

1
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What is the purpose of GLPs?

Govern the technical conduct of research from start to finish.

2
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GLPs regulate which of the following types of research?

Safety testing of various products for human and animal use including drugs

3
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Which individual represents the single point of study control at the research facility?

study director

4
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What do you call a chronological list of action steps written for completion of a task?

SOPs

5
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Which of the following in NOT an example of raw data?

Copied temperatures from printouts into a notebook

6
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Which of the following DOES NOT result in a facility getting disqualified?

Quality Assurance inspections had to be performed during a study.

7
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T or F: Quality Assurance reports directly to the Study Director and must also be engaged in research.

False

8
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T or F: Standard SOPs are written out step-by-step within each study protocol.

False

9
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T or F: Only the most current SOPs must be kept for record inspection; previous drafts are discarded.

False

10
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T or F: Personnel must be trained to perform each SOP; SOPs are not training manuals!

True

11
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For which two species does the Animal Welfare Regulations require a documented environmental enrichment/exercise plan?

Dogs and nonhuman primates

12
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Which environmental enrichment type would NOT be provided if mice on a study receive a special diet?

Food treats scattered in the bedding

13
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Which item is NOT an appropriate form of enrichment for mice?

puzzle feeders

14
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According to the AWA and Animal Welfare Regulations, when can an IACUC exempt specific animals from environmental enrichment programs?

when doing so is scientifically justified

15
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When adding enrichment for guinea pigs, it is important to remember that:

they scare easily

16
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What is an appropriate goal for an enrichment program?

increase species-typical behaviors

17
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Which of the following is NOT a reason for witholding pre-anesthetic drugs in rats and mice?

Calculating doses would be inconvenient and waste drug based on rodent size.

18
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Which route is most commonly used for administration of injectable anesthesia in rodents?

IP

19
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Which agent is the most commonly used for inhalant anesthesia in rodents?

Isoflurane

20
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Why is thermal support and monitoring so important during rodent anesthesia?

Rodents have a large surface area over which heat is lost rapidly.

21
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Fluid support for rodents under anesthesia is provided via which of the following methods?

SC/SQ

22
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How should you house rodents recovering from anesthesia?

Individually in a cage.

23
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Hypothermia is used for anesthesia in rodent pups if all but which condition is met?

Pups are unconscious.

24
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Which of the following species are coprophagic?

Rabbits

25
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Why should rabbits be sedated prior to using inhalant anesthesia with a face mask?

Rabbits will become stressed and struggle without prior sedation

26
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Which anatomical feature contributes to the challenge of intubation in rabbits?

Large incisors

27
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Other than using drugs, which non-pharmaceutical techniques can you use to manage pain?

All of these

28
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What is a grimace scale?

Utilizes facial features and expressions to assess pain

29
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A '2' on a grimace scale for any feature or expression means that:

Pain is severe

30
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<p>Is this rat in pain? </p>

Is this rat in pain?

Yes

31
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<p>Identify this piece of equipment. </p>

Identify this piece of equipment.

Induction chamber

32
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T or F: Atropine is the preferred anticholinergic for use in rabbits.

False

33
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T or F: Pain scales work well even if you are not familiar with that species' behaviors.

False

34
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An ABSL - 4 lab would be appropriate for working with which of the following hazards?

Agents causing life-threatening disease or have unknown transmission

35
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Which is the starting point for planning biocontainment and biosafety strategies?

Biological Risk Assessment

36
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Which of the following is NOT a component of the Biological Risk Assessment?

Cost associated with maintaining biosafety barriers and PPE.

37
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Components of the biocontainment plan include which of the following?

Personnel training

38
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Which of the following is an example of a primary barrier?

PPE

39
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Which BSC pulls in room air away from your body and face toward the back of the cabinet?

Class I

40
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Which BSC permits only sterile entry and exit of materials manipulated inside the cabinet?

Class III

41
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<p><span>What does this symbol indicate when working in the lab?</span></p>

What does this symbol indicate when working in the lab?

Biohazard

42
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Most veterinary laboratories are classified as which of the following?

  • ABSL - 1

  • ABSL - 2

  • ABSL - 3

  • ABSL - 4

ABSL - 2

43
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Which class of BSC is required for work in an ABSL - 4 lab?

Class III

44
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<p>What class BSC is this? </p>

What class BSC is this?

Class II

45
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<p>What class BSC is this? </p>

What class BSC is this?

Class I

46
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<p>What class BSC is this? </p>

What class BSC is this?

Class III

47
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T or F: The OHSP is part of the biocontainment plan for a given agent at a facility.

True

48
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T or F: A BSC is used whenever you are working with chemicals in the lab.

False

49
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Which of the following techniques is usually NOTrecommended for handling a rat?

Scruff

50
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What structure must be avoided when administering an intramuscular injection into the quadriceps muscle of the rabbit?

Sciatic nerve

51
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Which abdominal quadrant of the rat is recommended to give an intraperitoneal injection?

Lower right quadrant

52
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What is the maximum recommended volume for oral gavage in the rat?

10 ml/kg

53
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In which venipuncture method can blood become contaminated with tissue?

Retro-orbital

54
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<p><span>Which location is being used for venipuncture in the rabbit in this image?</span></p>

Which location is being used for venipuncture in the rabbit in this image?

Marginal ear vein

55
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Which area will NOT be used for routine SQ injections in the rabbit?

Between the scapulae

56
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What is the most common location for IV injections and blood sample collection in the rabbit?

Marginal ear vein

57
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When you are performing oral gavage, you are performing which of the following?

Introducing a tube into the esophagus to deliver material directly to the stomach

58
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How would placing the rat's tail in warm water improve your chances for successful venipuncture of the lateral tail vein?

This helps to dilate the lateral tail veins.

59
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How do you know how far to insert a gavage needle or gavage tube?

Measure from the tip of the nose to the last rib.

60
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The most dangerous disease agent transmitted from NHPs to humans is known as:

Herpes B Virus

61
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Where is tuberculin testing performed in NHPs?

the eyelid

62
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Nitrile gloves are preferred when working with NHPs because:

They are more puncture resistant.

63
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NHPs which are awake may be handled using which of the following?

Collar and pole

64
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What is the preferred site for IM injection in NHPs?

Quadriceps muscle

65
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A macaque that tests negative for Herpes B virus can be assumed to be free of infection.

False

66
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<p>What is the device used for? </p>

What is the device used for?

Inserted into the beak to hold it open for procedures such as oral gavage or exam of the oral cavity.

67
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Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate for opening a bird's beak for examination?

Insert an oral speculum.

68
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Which site is most appropriate for collecting larger amounts of blood from a bird?

Right jugular

69
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Why should silver nitrate never be used to control bleeding of blood feathers?

It can permanently damage the feather follicle.

70
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To minimize hematoma formation when collecting blood in birds:

Choose the smallest gauge needle possible.

71
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What is the most common site for fluid administration in the bird?

SC in the inguinal space

72
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IM injections are administered in which location in birds?

Middle 1/3 of the pectoral muscles lateral to the keel.

73
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Which site is most appropriate for placement of an intraosseous catheter in birds?

The distal ulna on the dorsal aspect.

74
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Gavage feeding of birds should be performed as the last treatment to prevent:

Regurgitation

75
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What is the maximum amount of blood you can collect from a healthy bird in a 24 hour period?

1 ml/100 grams

76
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Which of the following avian diseases is a fungal infection?

Aspergillosis

77
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Which of the following is a nematode infecting the trachea of birds which can result in respiratory distress and blocking of the trachea?

Gapeworm