Final

What plane of motion do horizontal abduction and adduction occur on?

Transverse.

What axis of rotation do horizontal abduction and adduction occur on?

Longitudinal.

What plane of motion does scapular elevation and depression occur in?

Frontal (coronal).

Define circumduction.

The circular motion of a body part that combines flexion/extension/abduction and adduction.

How many degrees of freedom does the shoulder have?

Define a motor unit.

A single motor neuron and all the fibers it innervates.

How does a muscle undergo hypertrophy or get larger as a result of resistance training?

Muscle fiber diameter grows.

What type of skeletal muscle is primarily utilized by marathon runners?

Type I.

Which motor units turn on first according to Henneman’s Size Principle?

Slow twitch.

What type of muscle contraction is occurring when the muscle is lengthening during contraction?

Eccentric.

A muscle serving to slow the movement caused by the primary mover is known as the what?

Antagonist.

What do ligaments connect?

Bone to bone.

Define the role of a muscle stabilizer.

Acts to maintain the position of a joint or body segment against an outside force.

Where does the brachialis muscle insert?

Coronoid process of the ulna.

Which of the following muscles acts on both the ankle and the knee: Soleus, posterior tibialis, fibularis longus, or gastrocnemius?

Gastrocnemius.

If the flexor digitorum profundus was torn distally, which joint movement would be most adversely affected?

DIP flexion.

Which of the following muscles is an example of parallel muscle fiber arrangement: External oblique, rectus abdominis, deltoid, or rectus femoris?

Rectus abdominis.

Which of the following muscles is an example of multipennate muscle fiber arrangement: External oblique, rectus abdominis, deltoid, or rectus femoris?

Deltoid.

Which of the following is an example of a reverse muscle action: The hamstrings during a Nordic curl, the latissimus dorsii during a lat pull down, the gastrocnemius during a calf raise, or the gluteus medius during a standing hip abduction exercise?

The hamstrings during a Nordic hamstring curl.

When the hand intrinsics activate, what are the corresponding actions?

Flexion of the metacarpophalangeal joint, extension of the proximal phalangeal joint, and extension of the distal phalangeal joint.

How do muscle spindles help protect you from getting injured?

They activate the muscles when they sense a dangerous amount of passive stretch.

What type of joint is found between the tibia and the fibula?

Syndesmoses.

Where do you find the interneuron, where the muscle stretch reflex occurs?

The spinal cord.

Which of the following is a pivot point: the atlantoaxial joint, the atlantooccipital joint, C3-7 intervertebral joints, or the lumbar spine intervertebral joints?

The atlantoaxial joint.

Which of the following is a hinge joint: The radiocarpal joint, the lumbar spine, the metacarpophalangeal joints, or the tibiofemoral joint?

The tibiofemoral joint.

Why does the articular cartilage have little ability to heal?

It has minimal to no blood flow.

When measuring cervical flexion, where should you line the fulcrum and the moving arm up?

The external auditory meatus (ear hole) and the nose.

What is the role of fibrocartilage in the knee?

All of the above: the menisci helps distribute loads over the joint surfaces, improves the fit of the articulating joint surfaces, and absorbs shock at the joint.

Define closed-pack positioning.

The maximum contact between articulating bony surfaces and is more stable.

Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton: The humerus, the skull, the sternum, or the spinal column?

The humerus.

What is the primary role of the rotator cuff?

Neutralizing agonist muscle forces.

If you are doing yoga and are holding stretching poses for at least 30 seconds, what type of stretching are you performing?

Static stretching.

Wolff’s law of bone growth states that increased stress on a bone will result in what changes to that bone?

Increased bone formation.

What is a dermatome?

A region of sensation stemming from a single spinal segment.

Which of the following is a valid way to test CNIII?

Tracing HH with one’s eyes.

Which of the following is a valid way to test the hypoglossal nerve?

Sticking out the tongue.

Which of the following responses could be cited as proof that we exhibit motor planning?

Our core muscles turn on to provide a stable platform before the muscles of our extremities turn on for a task.

Which of the following is a symptom of lower motor neuron dysfunction?

Low muscle tone.

Which of the following is a sign of upper motor neuron dysfunction?

Hyperreflexia.

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for executive processing?

Frontal lobe.

If someone had a stroke and had a lesion in the cerebral cortex of their brain, what type of lesion would they have?

Upper motor neuron lesion.

When measuring ankle plantar flexion ROM, where do the fulcrum and the movement arm of the goniometer go?

Malleolar line; parallel to the 5th metatarsal.

What plane of motion do adduction (ulnar deviation) and abduction (radial deviation) of the wrist occur on?

Frontal (coronal).

What axis of rotation do adduction (ulnar deviation) and abduction (radial deviation) of the wrist occur on?

Sagittal.

What type of joint is the shoulder: syndesmosis, symphysis, synovial, or synchondrosis?

Synovial.

Which of the following is an example of blocked practice?

A student who was recently paralyzed is practicing using their chair, repeatedly, for wheelies to go up and down a curb at a crosswalk on a busy street.

Which of the following movements would stretch the iliopsoas?

Posterior pelvic tilt and hip extension.

If you tear your achilles tendon but still have some plantar flexion ROM, which of the following muscles may be contributing with plantar flexion: tibialis posterior, tibilias anterior, extensor hallucis longus, or none of the above?

Tibialis posterior.

The boundary between the elastic and plastic regions of a stress-strain curve is the:

Yield point.

In internal impingement, the humeral head is pinching the rotator cuff tissue between itself and what?

The glenoid rim.

Pain comes from what source?

The brain.

Which of the following could be successful ways to enhance communication, particularly with minority populations: using a translator (in person or through telehealth), using plain language–not medical jargon, have them rephrase topics back to you, or all of the above?

All of the above.

Which of the following is NOT part of the female athlete triad or REDs?

Decreased visual acuity.

Tennis elbow involves irritation of the muscles that attach to the lateral epicondyle. What muscles attach there?

Wrist extensors.

When adding two or more vectors, how do you arrange them to accurately add them together?

Tip to tail.

The lever arm is running in what direction related to the fulcrum and force?

Perpendicular to them.

What class lever is FRE?

Class II.

If force is exerted and movement occurs but there is no torque, what type of movement will you observe?

Translation.

What class lever is the extensor mechanism of the knee?

Class III.

Agonist

Primary mover for a movement: Biceps brachii during elbow flexion

Antagonist

Muscle that opposes the action of the agonist (control and stabilization): triceps brachii during elbow flexion

Stabilizer

Muscles that stabilize a joint or body segment allowing other muscles to perform their action effectively: Rotator cuff muscles during shoulder press

Neutralizer

Muscle that prevents unwanted movements caused by agonist: pronator teres prevent supination during elbow flexion

Reverse actions of muscles

When origin and insertion of a muscle switch roles usually due to the stabilization of the distal end: during a pull-p the lats perform reverse action by pulling the torso towards fized arms

Concentric

Muscles shorten when generating a force: biceps during a bicep curl

Eccentric

Muscles lengthen while under tension to control movement: Downward phase of bicep curl

Isometric

Muscle generates tension without changing length:plank

Stretch-Shortening Cycle (SSC)

Rapid lengthening (eccentric phase) followed by immediate shortening (concentric) enhancing force production enhancing force production due to stored elastic energy and reflex activation

Example of SSC

The preparatory dip before doing a vertical jump

Passive insufficiency

When a muscle cannot stetch enough to allow full range of motion across multiple joints

Example of passive insufficiency

Hamstrings limiting hip flexion when the knee is fully extended

Active Insufficiency (stretched)

When a muscle cannot produce sufficient tension because it is shortened excessively

What’s an example of active insufficiency (shortened)

Biceps brachii struggling to flex the elbow fully when the shoulder is also flexed

Cranial nerve 1

smell (olfactory)

Cranial nerve 2

Vision (optic)

Cranial nerve 3

Eye movement, pupil constriction (oculomotor)

Cranial nerve 4

Eye movement (Trochlear)

Cranial nerve 5

Facial sensation, mastication (trigeminal)

Cranial nerve 6

Eye movement (abducens)

Cranial nerve 7

Facial expression taste (facial)

Cranial nerve 8

Hearing and balance (Vestibulocochlear)

Cranial nerve 9

(Glossopharyngeal): Taste (posterior 1/3 tongue), swallowing

Cranial nerve 10

Parasympathetic control, swallowing, speech (vagus)

Cranial nerve 11

Shoulder shrug, head-turning (accessory)

Cranial nerve 12

Tongue movement (hypoglossal)

Dermatomes

Areas of skin supplied by sensory fibers from a single spinal nerve.

Example: The C6 dermatome covers the thumb.

Myotomes

Muscle groups innervated by motor fibers from a single spinal nerve.

Example: C5 controls shoulder abduction (deltoid).

Upper motor neuron/lesion symptoms

Spasticity. Hyperreflexia. Weakness without significant muscle atrophy. Positive Babinski sign.

Lower motor neuron/lesion symptoms

Flaccid paralysis. Hyporeflexia or areflexia. Muscle atrophy. Fasciculations.

Frontal lobe

Responsible for motor control, decision-making, personality, and speech (Broca's area).

Parietal lobe

Processes sensory input and spatial awareness

Temporal lobe

Hearing, language comprehension (Wernicke’s area) and memory

Occipital lobe

Vision

Cerebellum

Coordination and balance

Motor units

A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. Smaller motor units are involved in fine motor control, while larger ones generate more force.

Proprioception

The body's ability to sense its position, movement, and orientation in space.

Stretch reflex

A reflexive contraction of a muscle in response to its rapid stretch, mediated by muscle spindles.

Example: The knee-jerk reflex.

Reciprocal inhibition

​​The process where activation of an agonist muscle inhibits the antagonist muscle to facilitate movement.

Muscle spindles

 Sensory receptors in muscles that detect changes in length and trigger the stretch reflex.

Golgi tenson units

Sensory receptors in tendons that monitor tension and inhibit muscle contraction to prevent damage.