Pulmonary Disorders ACCP/ASHP 2025 Ambulatory Care Pharmacy Preparatory Review and Recertification Course

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This set of 200 flashcards covers essential concepts from the Pulmonary Disorders lecture notes, including asthma, COPD, diagnosis, pharmacology, devices, vaccines, smoking cessation, and guideline-based management.

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191 Terms

1
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What is asthma?

A chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways with episodic airflow limitation, bronchial hyperresponsiveness, and underlying inflammation causing symptoms like wheezing, breathlessness, cough, and chest tightness.

2
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Name two major asthma phenotypes per GINA/ATS guidance.

Allergic asthma and non-allergic asthma (including adult-onset and obesity-related asthma).

3
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What does FeNO measure?

Fractional exhaled nitric oxide, a noninvasive marker of airway inflammation used as an adjunct in asthma diagnosis/management.

4
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What FeNO value indicates type 2 inflammation likely to respond to corticosteroids in nonsmokers?

FeNO greater than 50 ppb.

5
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What FeNO values suggest possible partial adherence or inadequate control?

FeNO between 25–50 ppb.

6
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What FeNO value suggests ICS exposure or non-type 2 asthma?

FeNO less than 25 ppb.

7
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What is the bronchodilator reversibility criterion for asthma diagnosis?

Increase in FEV1 by ≥12% and ≥200 mL after SABA in patients ≥12 years (≥15% and ≥200 mL in those <12 years).

8
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What is the role of a bronchodilator test in asthma diagnosis?

To demonstrate reversible airway obstruction as part of confirming asthma.

9
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What does EPR-3 refer to in asthma management?

NAEPP Expert Panel Report 3; the guideline used for asthma diagnosis, control, and stepwise therapy.

10
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What is the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidance generally focused on?

Diagnosis and initial treatment of adults with asthma, COPD features, or overlap; emphasis on ICS/formoterol as reliever and controller in many steps.

11
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What is the purpose of the ATS FeNO guidance?

Provide clinical guidance on FeNO use for diagnosis and response to corticosteroids, with eosinophilic thresholds for adults and children.

12
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What is the baseline spirometry parameter used to differentiate obstructive disease in COPD?

FEV1/FVC ratio is decreased; a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 70% confirms COPD.

13
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What is GOLD’s staging by FEV1 for airflow limitation?

GOLD 1: ≥80% predicted; GOLD 2: 50–79%; GOLD 3: 30–49%; GOLD 4: <30% predicted.

14
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What is GOLD ABCD assessment based on?

Risk of exacerbations (past events) and symptom burden (CAT or mMRC score) to group patients into A, B, C, or D.

15
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What is recommended initial therapy for GOLD group B?

Dual long-acting bronchodilator therapy (LABA + LAMA) or a single inhaler LABA/LAMA; ICS is considered based on eosinophils.

16
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What is the primary goal of COPD management?

Reduce symptoms and reduce risk by preventing disease progression, exacerbations, and mortality; improve quality of life.

17
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Which vaccines are recommended for COPD patients per CDC guidelines?

Pneumococcal vaccines (PCV15 or PCV20 then PPSV23 where indicated), influenza annually, Tdap if not previously vaccinated, COVID-19 vaccination per CDC, and zoster per GOLD/CDC guidance.

18
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What is the first-line pharmacologic therapy for most asthma patients per 2020 Focused Updates (Step 2)?

Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) as controller therapy.

19
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What is SMART in asthma therapy?

Single maintenance and reliever therapy using an ICS/formoterol inhaler; acts as controller and reliever in one inhaler.

20
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What is the preferred ICS/formoterol dose for SMART in patients ≥12 years?

1 or 2 puffs of ICS/formoterol (4.5 mcg/formoterol per puff) every 4 hours as needed, up to a max of 12 puffs per day (54 mcg/day).

21
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What add-on therapy may be considered in asthma Step 5 or 6 for adolescents and adults per GINA/2020 updates?

Tiotropium add-on; biologics for uncontrolled disease; for 6 years and older, tiotropium SMI may be used.

22
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What is FeNO’s role in diagnosing asthma per 2020 Focused Updates?

Adjunctive tool when diagnosis is uncertain or to guide corticosteroid dosing; not a stand-alone diagnostic test.

23
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What influence do blood eosinophils have on COPD therapy decisions?

Higher eosinophils (e.g., >300 cells/µL) predict greater benefit from inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) in COPD.

24
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What is the basic pharmacologic action of a SABA?

Short-acting beta2-agonist that provides quick relief of bronchospasm.

25
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What is the difference between SABA and ICS in asthma treatment?

SABA is a reliever; ICS is a controller aiming to reduce inflammation and prevent symptoms.

26
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What does LAMA stand for and what is its role in asthma?

Long-acting muscarinic antagonist; used as an add-on in certain asthma and COPD scenarios depending on guidelines.

27
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What is the meaning of LTRA in asthma management?

Leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g., montelukast) used as an add-on or alternative controller in asthma.

28
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What device is a breath-activated MDI with sensors (digital inhaler)?

DigiHaler (Digihaler) – an inhaler with built-in sensors to measure inspiratory flow and use.

29
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What is a spacer holding chamber used for MDIs?

A device that improves total dose delivery by slowing and stabilizing inhalation, reducing oropharyngeal deposition.

30
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What is the purpose of a holding chamber in MDIs?

To improve dose delivery and reduce oropharyngeal deposition; not used with DPIs.

31
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What is the recommended inhaler technique assessment schedule?

Reassess technique at every visit; ensure correct technique with MDIs and DPIs.

32
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What is the purpose of an asthma action plan?

A symptom- or peak-flow-based plan guiding patients on daily management and steps during exacerbations.

33
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What are the three cardinal symptoms that justify antibiotics in COPD exacerbations?

Increased dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and increased sputum purulence.

34
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What is the prednisone (or equivalent) dose for a 5-day COPD exacerbation course?

Prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days.

35
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What is the typical duration for COPD antibiotic therapy during an exacerbation?

Usually 5–7 days; 5 days often recommended by ACP/Physicians guidance.

36
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Which pathogens are most common in COPD exacerbations?

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis; Pseudomonas more common in severe disease.

37
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What is a common initial COPD management step during a stable phase?

Bronchodilator therapy (e.g., LABA/LAMA combinations) with consideration of ICS based on eosinophils.

38
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What is the GOLD initial treatment for a patient in Group A?

Bronchodilator (SABA or LAMA or LABA) with possible escalation; ICS generally not required.

39
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What is the difference between a DPI and an MDI?

DPI is a dry powder inhaler requiring quick, forceful inhalation; MDI uses a spray and often requires shaking and priming.

40
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What is a common adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)?

Oral candidiasis and hoarseness; rinse mouth after use.

41
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What baseline spirometry result indicates asthma rather than COPD in many cases?

Variable airflow obstruction with reversibility after bronchodilator; not fixed obstruction.

42
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What is the purpose of peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) monitoring in asthma?

To monitor daily variability and guide action plans and therapy adjustments.

43
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What is the typical FeNO interpretation for diagnosing asthma?

FeNO is adjunct and supportive; a high level supports eosinophilic inflammation but not a definitive diagnosis alone.

44
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What is the role of immunotherapy in mild to moderate allergic asthma (5 years and older)?

Subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT) is recommended as adjunctive therapy in mild-to-moderate allergic asthma; SLIT less favored.

45
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What are common counseling strategies for smoking cessation?

5 A’s approach (Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange) and motivational interviewing to address readiness and barriers.

46
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What is the effect of combination therapy with ICS/LABA in asthma?

Helps control inflammation and bronchoconstriction; often preferred over high-dose ICS alone in moderate-to-severe asthma.

47
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Explain SMART therapy in asthmatics 12 years and older.

Use ICS/formoterol as both maintenance and reliever therapy, with a specific dosing schedule to reduce exacerbations.

48
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What is the role of tiotropium in asthma management per recent updates?

Tiotropium add-on can be considered in certain moderate-to-severe asthma as an add-on to ICS/LABA; age-specific recommendations vary.

49
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What is the recommended action when FeNO-guided care suggests higher ICS dosing?

Increase ICS dose or add-on therapy when FeNO indicates Type 2 airway inflammation and insufficient control.

50
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What is the recommended vaccination in COPD patients aged 19–64 with chronic lung disease?

One dose of PCV15 or PCV20 followed by PPSV23 at least 1 year later if PCV15 used.

51
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What is the difference between ACO and ACOS terminology in the notes?

ACO (Asthma-COPD Overlap) is the older term; ACOS (Asthma-COPD Overlap Syndrome) is used in some guidelines to describe overlap features.

52
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What is the role of eosinophil counts in choosing COPD therapy?

Blood eosinophils help predict ICS responsiveness; higher counts suggest greater benefit from ICS.

53
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What is an example of a monoclonal antibody used in severe asthma with eosinophilic phenotype?

Mepolizumab (Nucala), or other anti-IL-5/5R agents like benralizumab, reslizumab, and dupilumab.

54
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What is the role of azithromycin in COPD management?

May be used chronically in selected patients to reduce exacerbations, though resistance and other risks exist.

55
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What is the recommended initial dose for albuterol nebulizer therapy in an acute COPD exacerbation?

2.5 mg every 1–4 hours as needed; or 4–8 puffs by MDI with a spacer every 1–4 hours as needed.

56
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What is the purpose of a lung function test like spirometry in asthma/COPD assessment?

To measure FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC to diagnose and monitor control and response to therapy.

57
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What is the primary goal of COPD management regarding vaccinations?

Vaccination against influenza and pneumococcus reduces lower respiratory infections and exacerbations.

58
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Which symptom scale is used to evaluate COPD symptom burden?

CAT (COPD Assessment Test) and CCQ (Clinical COPD Questionnaire).

59
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What is an important non-pharmacologic COPD management strategy?

Pulmonary rehabilitation that includes exercise, nutrition counseling, and disease education.

60
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What is the recommended action if a COPD patient has frequent exacerbations while on LABA/LAMA?

Consider adding ICS if eosinophils are elevated; evaluate for triple therapy (ICS/LABA/LAMA) or other add-ons.

61
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What is the typical management step for EIB (exercise-induced bronchoconstriction)?

Regular physical activity with warm-up; SABA pretreatment; daily controller therapy if symptoms are frequent.

62
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How is a COPD exacerbation classified clinically?

As mild, moderate, or severe based on symptoms and need for therapy or hospitalization; sputum and dyspnea changes guide management.

63
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What substances are commonly assessed to determine antibiotic need in COPD exacerbations?

Three Anthonisen criteria: increased dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and increased sputum purulence.

64
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What is the role of corticosteroids in COPD exacerbations?

Systemic steroids shorten recovery time, improve FEV1 and oxygenation, and reduce treatment failure.

65
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What is a common adverse effect of ICS in COPD patients?

Oral candidiasis and hoarseness; rinse mouth after inhalation.

66
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What is a common first-line rescue therapy for COPD exacerbations?

Short-acting bronchodilators (SABA) with or without SAMA as needed.

67
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What is the role of roflumilast in COPD management?

A PDE-4 inhibitor used in severe COPD with chronic bronchitis to reduce exacerbations in select patients; weight loss and GI effects noted.

68
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Which monoclonal antibody targets IL-4Rα and is used in eosinophilic asthma and some COPD patients?

Dupilumab (Dupixent).

69
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Which monoclonal antibody targets IL-5 and is used in severe eosinophilic asthma?

Mepolizumab (Nucala).

70
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What is the dosing rationale for combination ICS/LABA inhalers?

Provide both anti-inflammatory and bronchodilator effects; reduces exacerbations and improves lung function.

71
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What is the recommended smoking cessation pharmacotherapy for someone with cardiovascular disease where safety is a concern?

Varenicline is often recommended as first-line, with monitoring for neuropsychiatric effects; combinations with NRT may be used in some cases.

72
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What is the 5 A’s framework in tobacco cessation?

Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange—the core steps to help patients quit smoking.

73
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What is the role of bupropion in smoking cessation?

Norepinephrine/dopamine reuptake inhibitor used as a smoking cessation aid; second-line option in some guidelines; caution in seizure disorders.

74
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What is the maximum recommended duration for varenicline use in typical guidelines?

Varenicline can be used for up to about 6 months or longer per package instructions, depending on guidance.

75
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What is a common warning associated with varenicline in patients with psychiatric history?

Neuropsychiatric adverse effects; monitor for mood changes; discontinue if worsening depression or suicidality occurs.

76
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What is a common nonpharmacologic smoking cessation strategy?

Behavioral counseling, motivational interviewing, and planning including setting a quit date.

77
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What is the purpose of a “quitting plan” (STAR) in smoking cessation?

Set a quit date, tell family, anticipate challenges, develop coping strategies, and follow-up.

78
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What is the difference between NRT patch and NRT gum in adherence and duration?

Patch offers steady nicotine delivery and better adherence; gum provides quicker relief and can be used PRN with longer-term use possible.

79
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What is the rationale for using ICS/formoterol as a reliever option in GINA track 1?

ICS/formoterol provides anti-inflammatory control at the time of reliever therapy, reducing exacerbation risk versus SABA alone.

80
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What is the recommended action if a patient with asthma has frequent nighttime awakenings but good daytime control?

Upgrade therapy according to EPR-3 stepwise approach, often to add or increase controller therapy.

81
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What is the recommended step for a 8-year-old with moderate persistent asthma per 2020 Focused Updates?

Possible initiation of low-to-mid dose ICS or ICS/LABA depending on age and symptom pattern; screen for appropriate maintenance therapy.

82
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What is the role of selex in the content? (Trick question; not applicable in notes)

Not applicable to this content.

83
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What is the purpose of a holding chamber with masks for young children using MDIs?

To ensure proper inhaled dose delivery when a child cannot coordinate actuation with inhalation.

84
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Which component is part of the Asthma Control Questionnaires?

ACT (Asthma Control Test) and ACQ (Asthma Control Questionnaire) are validated tools.

85
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What is the purpose of a peak flow diary in asthma management?

Track daily PEFR to determine personal best and guide action plans.

86
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What is the role of pneumococcal vaccination in asthma?

Evidence is inconclusive for routine pneumococcal vaccination solely for asthma; guidelines focus vaccination on COPD and other risk factors.

87
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What is the recommended vaccination for influenza in asthma patients?

Annual influenza vaccination to reduce risk of lower respiratory tract infections.

88
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What is the significance of the “SABA overuse” warning in asthma management?

Frequent SABA use (>2 days/week) indicates poor control and the need to escalate controller therapy.

89
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What is the rationale for ICS/formoterol as SMART therapy not FDA-approved in some contexts?

Evidence supports SMART in many guidelines; FDA labeling may vary by product and region, requiring clinician judgment.

90
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What is the significance of a 12-step approach in asthma management?

Step therapy aligns treatment intensity with severity and improves control while minimizing medication exposure.

91
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What is a PEF reading that indicates yellow zone in asthma action plans?

PEFR 50%–79% of personal best; action includes using reliever and stepping up controller as needed.

92
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What does ACT score indicate in asthma?

Asthma Control Test score quantifies control; lower scores indicate not well controlled asthma.

93
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What is a typical ICS daily dose range for beclomethasone MDI?

Variable by product; common low-dose ranges exist (e.g., 40–160 mcg per actuation depending on product).

94
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What is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids in children?

Oral candidiasis and potential growth impact with long-term high-dose ICS; monitor growth.

95
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What is the triple therapy in COPD and what does it include?

ICS/LABA/LAMA combination therapy shown to reduce exacerbations in some trials (e.g., IMPACT, ETHOS).

96
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What is the role of azithromycin in COPD during stable disease vs. exacerbation?

Azithromycin can reduce exacerbations in select patients but carries resistance and safety considerations.

97
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Which nonpharmacologic therapy is shown to improve COPD outcomes across severity levels?

Pulmonary rehabilitation including exercise, nutrition, and disease education.

98
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What is the recommended initial step for a patient with GOLD grade 2, group B?

Add a long-acting bronchodilator combination (LABA + LAMA) for dual bronchodilation.

99
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What is the significance of the BODE index in COPD?

A composite index (Body mass, Obstruction, Dyspnea, Exercise capacity) used to assess prognosis; not explicitly in notes but part of COPD assessment context.

100
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What is the main purpose of the 2025 GOLD report?

Provide updated global guidance on COPD diagnosis, management, and prevention.