Oral pathology final exam

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214 Terms

1
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The primary and most common cause of a mucocele is:

A) inflammation

B) tumor formation

C) severing of or trauma to a minor salivary duct

D) obstruction of a salivary gland duct

C) severing of or trauma to a minor salivary duct

2
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A ranula is located on the:

A) lower lip

B) buccal mucosa

C) retro molar pad

D) floor of the mouth

D) floor of the mouth

3
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Which one of the following would not occur on the gingiva?

A) irritation fibroma

B) pyogenic granuloma

C) giant cell granuloma

D) epulis fissuration

A) irritation fibroma

4
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A panorex reveals multiple supernumerary teeth. This patient also has open cranial frontanelles and aplasia (incomplete, retarded or defective development of an Oran or tissue) of the clavicles. What autosomal dominant condition does this patient have?

A) hypercementosis

B) chondroectodermal dysplasia

C) osteogenesis imperfecta

D) cleidocranial dysplasia

E) mandibulofacial dysostosis

D) cleidocranial dysplasia

5
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The wearing away of the tooth structure through an abnormal mechanical action defines:

A) attrition

B) abrasion

C) erosion

D) gemination

B) abrasion

6
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Generalized loss of tooth structure primarily on the lingual surfaces of teeth is associated with:

A) erosion

B) attrition

C) abrasion

D) bruxism

A) erosion

7
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During examination of the dentition, the DH notes the presence of active wear facets. This indicates that the patient is:

A) a bruxer

B) bulimic

C) a vegetarian

D) lip biting

A) a bruxer

8
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This mandibular first molar displays a developmental anomaly. Upon clinical observation, one notes an extra cusp in the center of the occlusal surface in the central pit in this tooth. What is it called?

A) talon cusped tooth

B) concresence

C) dens invaginatus (dens in dente)

D) dens evaginatus

E) taurdontism

D) dens evaginatus

9
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Referred to as "localized microdontia" which teeth most often appear smaller than normal?

A) mandibular premolars and maxillary third molars

B) maxillary premolars and mandibular third molars

C) mandibular lateral incisors and mandibular third molars

D) maxillary lateral incisors and maxillary third molars

D) maxillary lateral incisors and maxillary third molars

10
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Which of the following is considered to be the most likely cause of necrotizing sialometaplasia?

A) blocked salivary gland ducts

B) radiation therapy

C) loss of blood supply

D) a sialolith

C) loss of blood supply

11
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Which term refers to a developmental anomaly in which teeth exhibit elongated, large pulp chambers and short roots?

A) dens in dente

B) dens evaginatus

C) taurdontism

D) dilaceration

C) taurdontism

12
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Epulis fissuratum results from irritation caused by:

A) a denture flange

B) denture adhesive

C) poor suction from the denture in the palatal vault

D) an allergic reaction

A) a denture flange

13
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The paramyxovirus is responsible for:

A) mumps

B) herpangina

C) herpes labialis

D) aphthous ulcer

A) mumps

14
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Which statement concerning repair in the body is TRUE?

A) repair can be completed with the injurious agents present

B) functioning cells and tissue components are always replaced by functioning scar tissue

C) repair is the body's final defense mechanism

D) replacement by live cells and new tissue components is a perfect process

C) repair is the body's final defense mechanism

15
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Lace-like white striae present on the posterior buccal mucosa bilaterally may represent:

A) linea alba

B) leukoedema

C) lichen planus

D) erythema multiform

C) lichen planus

16
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The most common site for a mucocele to occur is the:

A) floor of the mouth

B) lower lip

C) buccal mucosa

D) retro molar pad

B) lower lip

17
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Which of the following is the term that describes intraoral lace-like lesions of lichen planus?

A) plaque

B) wickham striae

C) papules

D) leukoplakia

E) atrophic

B) wickham striae

18
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It's important for the clot to remain in place during repair because it:

A) later becomes granulation tissue

B) serves as a guide for migrating epithelial cells

C) produce collagen fibers

D) remodels later to become scar tissue

B) serves as a guide for migrating epithelial cells

19
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Patients with bulimia commonly suffer from

A) erosion of the teeth

B) severe dental caries

C) gastric acid decalcification of the teeth

D) all of the above

D) all of the above

20
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Which of the following intraoral locations is the most common site for formation of a pyogenic granuloma?

A) palate

B) tongue

C) gingiva

D) buccal mucosa

C) gingiva

21
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Sialoliths are most commonly found during radiographic examination of the:

A) stensons duct

B) whartons duct

C) maxillary sinus

D) minor salivary glands

B) whartons duct

22
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Non-perforating internal tooth resorption is best managed by:

A) surgical curettage

B) root canal therapy

C) incision and drainage

D) periodic evaluation and recall

B) root canal therapy

23
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Desquamation of which of the following papillae occurs in being migratory glossitis?

A) foliate

B) filiform

C) fungiform

D) circumvallate

B) filiform

24
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Malignant melanoma of the oral cavity is rare; however the most common intraoral location is the:

A) palate and maxillary gingiva

B) tongue

C) buccal mucosa

D) retromolar pad

B) tongue

25
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Osteomas are a component of

A) neurofibromatosis

B) gardners syndrome

C) osteosarcoma

D) ossifying fibroma

B) gardners syndrome

26
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A malignant tumor of bone-forming tissue is called

A) chondrosarcoma

B) angiosarcoma

C) osteosarcoma

D) hemangiosarcoma

C) osteosarcoma

27
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A disorder characterized by an overproduction of atypical white bold cells is called

A) hemangioma

B) leukemia

C) melanoma

D) leukocytosis

D) leukocytosis

28
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A malignant tumor of lymphocytes is called

A) multiple myeloma

B) melanoma

C) lymphoma

D) angiosarcoma

C) lymphoma

29
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Which one of the following benign tumors is associated with Von recklinghausens disease

A) rhabdomyoma

B) lipoma

C) neurofibroma

D) osteoma

C) neurofibroma

30
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Which of the following is the most common odontogenic tumor

A) odontoma

B) ameloblastoma

C) benign cementoblastoma

D) odontogenic myxoma

A) odontoma

31
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Which of the following is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor in children?

A) adenoid cystic carcinoma

B) monomorphic adenoma

C) papillary cytadenoma lymphomatosum

D) mucoepidermoid carcinoma

D) mucoepidermoid carcinoma

32
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A benign tumor composed of a proliferation of capillaries is called a

A) schwannoma

B) hemangioma

C) lipoma

D) osteoma

B) hemangioma

33
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A white plaque-like lesion that cannot be rubbed off and is diagnosed as a specific disease is called

A) speckled leukoplakia

B) erythroplakia

C) leukoplakia

D) epithelial dysplasia

C) leukoplakia

34
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All of the following are benign lesions composed of mature compact bone except a(n):

A) torus

B) osteoma

C) exostosis

D) ossifying fibroma

D) ossifying fibroma

35
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a primordial cyst?

A) develops in place of a tooth

B) attaches to the apex of the tooth

C) attaches to the crown of the tooth

D) remains after the tooth is extracted

A) develops in place of a tooth

36
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The most common location for a mucous extravasation phenomenon is the:

A) lower lip

B) palate

C) upper lip

D) floor of the mouth

E) retromolar pad

A) lower lip

37
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The most common location for a mucous retention cyst is the:

A) palate

B) lower lip

C) upper lip

D) floor of the mouth

E) retromolar pad

D) floor of the mouth

38
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A permanent tooth that displays hypoplasia caused by trauma or infection during development has been termed:

A) peg lateral

B) mulberry tooth

C) turners hypoplasia

D) hutchinsons incisors

C) turners hypoplasia

39
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Verrucous carcinoma is differentiated from other squamous cell carinomaa because it

A) doesn't occur in the oral cavity

B) most commonly occurs on the lower lip

C) has a better prognosis

D) has no keratin

B) most commonly occurs on the lower lip

40
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The most common intraoral location for salivary gland tumors is the

A) lower lip

B) buccal mucosa

C) palate

D) anterior tongue

A) lower lip

41
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Which of the following is an example of a malignant salivary gland tumor?

A) pleomorphic adenoma

B) warthins tumor

C) monomorphic adenoma

D) adenoid cystic carcinoma

D) adenoid cystic carcinoma

42
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Which of the following statements about ameloblastomas are true?

A) are benign, slow growing, infiltrating tumors

B) are composed of odontogenic epithelium

C) most commonly occur in the mandibular molar-ramus area

D) all of the above

D) all of the above

43
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The odontogenic tumor that characteristically presents as a well-circumscribed radiolucency located in the anterior maxilla of an adolescent girl is an

A) ameloblastic fibroma

B) ameloblastoma

C) odontogenic myxoma

D) adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

D) adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

44
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A benign cementoblastoma can be recognized on x-ray film because

A) it is well-circumscribed, radiopaque, and attached to the root of a tooth

B) is had a characteristic multilocular radiolucent radiographic appearance

C) it radiographically resembles a periapical granuloma

D) it is a rapidly growing lesion

A) it is well-circumscribed, radiopaque, and attached to the root of a tooth

45
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A compound odontoma differs from a complex odontoma in that a compound odontoma

A) is composed of tooth like structures

B) has unlimited growth potential

C) is primarily composed of dental pulp tissue

D) is usually located in the posterior mandible

A) is composed of tooth like structures

46
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A benign tumor of adipose tissue is called

A) lipoma

B) schwannoma

C) hemangioma

D) lymphangioma

A) lipoma

47
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The most common malignant soft tissue tumor of the head and neck I'm children is

A) squamous cell carinoma

B) malignant odontogenic tumor

C) rhabdomyosarcoma

D) osteosarcoma

C) rhabdomyosarcoma

48
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Neoplasia involves

A) an irreversible changes that results in uncontrolled multiplication of cells

B) an abnormal proliferation of cells in response to tissue damage

C) a controlled proliferation of cells

D) a abnormal arrangement of proliferating cells

A) an irreversible changes that results in uncontrolled multiplication of cells

49
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Which one of the following is a characteristic of benign tumors?

A) numerous mitotic figures

B) rapid growths

C) slow growths

D) metastasis

C) slow growths

50
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A small exophytic lesion of the tongue that is the color of normal mucosa and is composed of papillary projections arranged in a "cauliflower like" appearance is most likely a

A) papilloma

B) fibroma

C) neurofibroma

D) verrucous carcinoma

A) papilloma

51
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Which of the following is a histological characteristic of squamous cell carcinoma?

A) invasion of tumor cells in the connective tissue

B) pleomorphic epithelial cells

C) keratin pearls

D) all of the above

D) all of the above

52
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Which of the following are the most common locations for intraoral squamous cell carcinomas?

A) upper labial mucosa, buccal mucosa, hard palate

B) lower labial mucosa, maxillary gingival, buccal mucosa

C) floor of the mouth, ventrolateral tongue, oropharyngeal area

D) anterior tongue, mandibular gingiva, retromolar area

C) floor of the mouth, ventrolateral tongue, oropharyngeal area

53
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A histological diagnosis of epithelial dysplasia is of concern because the lesion may

A) cause severe bleeding

B) be cosmetically objectionable

C) be premalignant

D) be hyperkeratosis

C) be premalignant

54
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Severe epithelial dysplasia may also be called

A) epithelial hyperplasia

B) carcinoma in situ

C) infiltration carcinoma

D) hyperkeratosis

B) carcinoma in situ

55
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The most appropriate treatment for epithelial dysplasia is

A) observation

B) chemotherapy

C) radiation therapy

D) complete removal

D) complete removal

56
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Which term refers to a defect present at birth

A) abnormality

B) inherited defect

C) congenital defect

D) developmental defect

C) congenital defect

57
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Which term refers to the origin and tissue formation of teeth

A) odontogenesis

B) dentinogenesis

C) amelogenesis

D) cementogenesis

A) odontogenesis

58
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Which cyst is not an odontogenic cyst?

A) dentigerous cyst

B) primordial cyst

C) median palatal cyst

D) lateral periodontal cyst

C) median palatal cyst

59
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The most common cause of the radicular cyst is

A) caries

B) trauma

C) malignant infiltration

D) food impaction

A) caries

60
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Which cyst is an odontogenic intraosseous cyst that forms around the crown of a developing tooth?

A) coronal cyst

B) dentigerous cyst

C) lateral periodontal cyst

D) eruption cyst

B) dentigerous cyst

61
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Which cyst develops in place of a tooth

A) dentigerous cyst

B) primordial cyst

C) lateral periodontal cyst

D) odontogenic keratocyst

B) primordial cyst

62
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With which cyst may the patient complain of dysphasia

A) thyroglossal tract cyst

B) median palatal cyst

C) static bone cyst

D) traumatic bone cyst

A) thyroglossal tract cyst

63
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Which cyst is considered a psuedocyst

A) traumatic bone cyst

B) dentigerous cyst

C) lymphoepithelial cyst

D) primordial cyst

A) traumatic bone cyst

64
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In addition to the odontogenic keratocyst, which lesion would you suspect if a radiograph revealed a multilocular radiolucency?

A) globulomaxillary cyst

B) aneurismal bone cyst

C) stafnes bone cyst

D) radicular cyst

B) aneurismal bone cyst

65
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Which terms refers to the adhesion of the tongue to the floor of the mouth

A) ankylosis

B) ankyloglossia

C) anodontia

D) amelogenesis

B) ankyloglossia

66
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Which location is the most common for lip pits?

A) commissures

B) philtrum

C) nasolabial groove

D) labiomental groove

A) commissures

67
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Which term refers to an ectopic mass of thyroid tissue located on the dorsal tongue

A) thyroid cyst

B) thyroid tumor

C) lingual tonsil

D) lingual thyroid

D) lingual thyroid

68
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The study of tumors is called

A) pathology

B) neoplasia

C) cytology

D) oncology

D) oncology

69
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The macrophage has many functions. Which is not a function?

A) phagocytosis

B) removal of large forge in matter

C) removal of inhaled particles

D) formation of antibodies

D) formation of antibodies

70
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What terms is used to describe blood plasma and proteins which leave the blood vessels and enter the surrounding tissues during inflammation?

A) hyperemia

B) exudate

C) margination

D) erythema

B) exudate

71
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The process of phagocytosis directly involves the

A) ingestion of forgiven substances by white blood cells

B) plasma fluids and proteins entering the surrounding tissues

C) white blood cells displaced to the blood vessel walls

D) white blood cells attaching to the blood vessel walls

A) ingestion of forgiven substances by white blood cells

72
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The neutrophil or polymorphonuclear leukocyte is a cell that

A) is derived from the precursor red blood cell

B) contains lysosomal enzymes

C) has an agranular cytoplasm

D) is produced only in infancy

B) contains lysosomal enzymes

73
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During inflammation the second type of white blood cell to emigrate from the blood vessel into the injured tissue is the

A) neutrophil

B) red blood cell

C) lymphocyte

D) monocyte

D) monocyte

74
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Components of the complement system mediate the inflammatory process by

A) decreasing vascular permeability

B) releasing the neutrophils histamine granules

C) causing cytolysis

D) decreasing phagocytosis

C) causing cytolysis

75
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Granulation tissue can be described as

A) immature connective tissue

B) exudate formation

C) keloid formation

D) healing by tertiary intention

A) immature connective tissue

76
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Enlarged superficial lymph nodes noted during systemic involvement with inflammation are

A) termed leukocytosis

B) regulated by the hypothalamus

C) due to changes in their lymphocytes

D) palates along blood vessel drainage routes

C) due to changes in their lymphocytes

77
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All of the following are associated with the development of temporomandibular disorders except one. Which one is the exception

A) joint trauma

B) rheumatoid arthritis

C) parafunctional habits

D) excessive consumption of hard foods

E) Paget's disease

D) excessive consumption of hard foods

78
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Hypercementosis is associated with which one of the following?

A) osteoarthritis

B) fibrous dysplasia

C) osteoporosis

D) heberden nodes

E) Paget's disease

B) fibrous dysplasia

79
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Which on of the following disorders is associated with many supernumerary teeth?

A) ectodermal dysplasia

B) cri-du-char

C) trisomy 21

D) Turner syndrome

E) cleidocranial dysplasia

E) cleidocranial dysplasia

80
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Individuals with trisomy 21 have many problems. What congenital medial condition is of great concern to the dental professional and should be identified prior to providing dental hygiene care?

A) attention deficit disorder

B) heart defects

C) impaired hearing

D) marcroglossia

E) facial hypoplasia

B) heart defects

81
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Which one of the following describes the appearance of enamel hypoplasia resulting forms febrile illness or vit deficiency?

A) pitting defects

B) yellow brown discoloration

C) blackish brown staining

D) chalky white spots

A) pitting defects

82
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Which of of the following dental concerns would be associated with acromegaly?

A) perio disease

B) tmj dysfunction

C) enlarged tongue

D) caries

E) cleft lip/palate

C) enlarged tongue

83
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The manifestations of hypoparathyroidism are most evident in which of the following areas?

A) gastrointestinal

B) reproductive

C) neuromuscular

D) cardiovascular

E) skeletal

C) neuromuscular

84
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Which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) stunted growth

B) frontal bossing

C) epicanthal folds

D) brain damage

E) microcephaly

B) frontal bossing

85
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Which of the following management strategies would be appropriate for a patient with suspected active TB?

A) provide proph coverage prior to dental care

B) reschedule the pt and refer for immediate evaluation

C) dental healthcare workers should wear a disposable cover over their uniforms when treating someone with suspected TB

D) limit aerosol production during the dental procedures

E) instruct patients to cough into a tissue or cover their mouths when they cough

B) reschedule the pt and refer for immediate evaluation

86
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The white line observed clinically on the buccal mucosa that extends from anterior to posterior along occlusal plane

A) leukoedema

B) leukoplakia

C) linea alba

D) lichen planus

C) linea alba

87
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Which one of the following is a variant of normal that at one time was thought to be developmental anomaly but now is suggested to be associated with c albicans? Clinically, there is a rectangular area on the midline of the dorsal surface of the tongue devoid of filiform papillae

A) median rhomboid glossitis

B) geographic tongue

C) fissured tongue

D) lingual thyroid

A) median rhomboid glossitis

88
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Which one of the following diagnostics categories would the hygienist most easily apply to the preliminary evaluation of oral lesions?

A) microscopic

B) clinical

C) therapeutic

D) differential

B) clinical

89
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These examples of exostosis are found on the lingual aspect of the mandible in the area of the premolars. They are benign, bony, and hard and require no treatment. Radiographically, they appear as radiopaque areas and are often bilaterally. You suspect:

A) mandibular tori

B) lingual mand bone concavity

C) genial tubercles

D) mand fossa

A) mandibular tori

90
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Which one of the following terms is most often used when describing mand tori?

A) bullous

B) lobulated

C) sessile

D) pedunculated

B) lobulated

91
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Leukoedema is considered a variant of normal and is observed clinically as a diffuse gray to white film on the buccal mucosa that gives an opalescent character to the tissue. It is most commonly found in:

A) whites

B) Asians

C) native Americans

D) blacks

D) blacks

92
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The cells of the body are no longer tolerated and the immune system treats them as antigens in which type of immunopathic disease?

A) hypersensitivity

B) immunodeficiency

C) hyperplasia

D) autoimmune disease

D) autoimmune disease

93
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Which type of allergic reaction involves hypersensitivity reaction?

A) type 1

B) type 2

C) type 3

D) type 4

D) type 4

94
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Which immunopathology involves a decreased number of activities of lymphoid cells?

A) autoimmune

B) hypersensitivity

C) immunodeficiency

D) immunization

C) immunodeficiency

95
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Measurement of a specific antibody level in the blood is called

A) phagocytosis

B) margination

C) titer

D) pavementing

C) titer

96
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Which type of immunity may be immediately provided to dental personnel following needle stick accidents?

A) natural passive immunity

B) acquired passive immunity

C) natural active immunity

D) acquired active immunity

B) acquired passive immunity

97
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The oral lesions in reiters syndrome may resemble:

A) nicotine stomatitis

B) lichen planus

C) angioedema

D) geographic tongue

D) geographic tongue

98
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Which systemic disease is NOT associated with aphthous ulcers?

A) behcets syndrome

B) necrotizing sialometaplasia

C) ulcerative colitis

D) crohns

B) necrotizing sialometaplasia

99
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Which of the following may cause early eruption of the permanent dentition?

A) hyperthyroidism

B) hypothyroidism

C) cri-du-chat

D) hyperparathyroidism

E) trisomy 21

E) trisomy 21

100
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Receiving immunity from a polio vaccination is an example of which of the following?

A) passive, artificial immunity

B) passive, natural immunity

C) active, artificial

D) active, natural immunity

E) cell mediated immunity

C) active, artificial