Fixed II Final

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a requirement of dental solder, according to Shillingburg?

A. dental solder should react properly with antiflux and be reasonably affordable.

B. dental solder should be strong and possess a lower fusion temperature than the alloy being soldered.

C. dental solder should be free-flowing and the same color as the alloy being soldered

D. dental solder should be non-pitting and corrosion resistant.

E. A, B, C, and D are all requirements of dental solder

A

Which of the following statements regarding solder is FALSE?

A. soldering fluxes are used to dissolve surface impurities and to protect the surface from oxidation, thus increasing the ability of the solder to "flow"

B. dental solder should possess a fusion temperature that is about 100-150F lower than that of the metal being soldered

C. when adding a proximal contact with solder, the reason for outlining the area to be soldered with a flux (such as a soft graphite pencil) is to restrict the flow of the solder.

D. when fabricating a ceramic soldering index, the porcelain is covered with wax prior to pouring in the soldering investment in order to prevent contamination of the ceramic veneer by the investment material

E. A, B, C, and D are all TRUE statements

E

Which of the following should be included on a dentist's work authorization form that is sent to the dental lab when requesting fabrication of a fixed partial denture?

A. the type of metal alloy the dentist wants to be used

B. the type of pontic the dentist wants to be used

C. the type of occlusal scheme the dentist desirers

D. the dentist's signature and dental license number

E. all of the above should be included

E

Which of the following statements is FALSE in regards to requirements for dies and working casts for cast restorations?

A. they need to be accurate and must be a true representation of the prepared surfaces

B. they must be poured using a Type IV or Type V dental stone

C. you must be able to clearly visualize all margins

D. they should be poured using a dental stone that has been vacuum mixed

E. all of the above are TRUE

E

You are consistently having trouble trapping bubbles when you pour your master impression, so you review the basics described in class and in your textbook. Of the following, which suggestion would NOT be a correct means of handling the dental stone used to pour up a final impression for a cast restoration?

A. mechanically mix the dental stone under vacuum

B. use the manufacturer's suggested water/powder ratios

C. spray the impression with a surface tension reducer or debubblizer prior to pouring

D. add ~2mL more water to allow for a smoother mix which decreases the chances of trapping air bubbles in strategic places

E. A, B, C, and D are all correct means for handling the dental stone used to pour a final impression for a cast restoration.

D

You are evaluating the final impression you have just made for a full gold crown on tooth #31. Which of the following would cause you to reject the impression?

A. you notice a large void along the mesial finish line

B. you realize that you used alginate tray adhesive instead of VPS tray adhesive

C. you notice that only 0.25 mm of unprepared tooth is visible cervical to your finish line

D. answers A and B would both be reasons to reject the impression

E. answers A, B, and C would all be reasons to reject the impression

D

Statement 1: When preparing 2 or more teeth for a fixed partial denture, the smaller abutment tooth determines the path placement.

Statement 2: One disadvantage to using a metal-ceramic restoration is that due to esthetic and retention concerns, the facial margins must sometimes be placed subgingival.

A. the first statement is true; second statement is false

B. first statement is false; second statement is true

C. both statements are true

D. both statements are false

C

Which end of the incisal guide pin should be used with the plastic incisal guide block?

A. the flat end

B. the round end

B

For a modified ridge lap pontic, where should the pontic contact the ridge?

A: Gingivofacial line angle

B: Lingual to crest of the ridge

C: Only at the crest of the ridge

D: Facial to the crest of the ridge

E: Only A and B are correct.

D

Statement 1: The modified ridge lap pontic is slightly wider mesiodistally

at the lingual aspect and narrower at the facial aspect.

Statement 2: The contact with the crest of the ridge should be broad versus compact.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

D

Which of the following statements regarding modified ridge lap is true?

A: The lingual half of the tissue side is slightly concave.

B: Only the facial half of the tissue side is in contact with the ridge.

C: The gingivofacial line angle should lap the ridge completely like a saddle instead of curving lingually towards the crest of the ridge.

D: Only A and C are correct.

E: Only B and C are correct.

B

If the facial aspect of a MCC prep is not prepped in 2 planes, what may result?

A: The opaque may show through.

B: The pulp may be violated.

C: The restoration may be overbulked.

D: Only B and C are correct.

E: A, B and C are correct.

E

Which of the following is correct with regards to the draw of the 6-8 prep?

A: Both preps should converge incisally.

B: Both preps should be prepped slightly mesial to the long axis, so that the resulting restoration draws to the mesial.

C: The mesial aspects of both preps should have taper. The distal wall should not have taper.

D: The distal aspect of both preps should have taper. The mesial walls should not have taper.

A

Which of the following is NOT an ideal physical property for a post?

A. Adequate retention within the root

B. Maximum retention of the core

C. Maximum protection of the crown margin cement seal

D. Radiolucent

E. All the above are ideal properties for a post.

D

Statement 1: One advantage of a cast post and core is the fracture resistant one-piece design.

Statement 2: Several studies have concluded the most successful prefabricated post design is parallel in shape, passive rather than active, vented, and smooth.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

B

Statement 1: When treatment planning, the most important factor determining the overall prognosis of a tooth is the type of tooth (incisor/molar).

Statement 2: Prefabricated post and cores are contraindicated for FPD abutment teeth.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

D

A patient presents with a RCT #7 tooth. A PA radiograph of the tooth shows an adequate endodontic fill with no apical pathology. During the clinical evaluation, you find an intact marginal ridge and cingulum, a small mesial-facial Class III resin and a small access opening filled with temporary material. The patient has an open bite. What is the best, recommended treatment?

A. Cast post and core with an all ceramic crown

B. Prefabricated post and core with a metal ceramic crown

C. Restore the access opening with resin.

D. Tooth extraction

C

Statement 1: A post & core should have a positive occlusal seat to avoid the wedge-like action of the post.

Statement 2: Thin/unsupported areas of tooth should remain to conserve the overall tooth structure.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

B

The encirclement of approximately 2 mm of vertical axial tooth structure within the walls of a crown creates

which of the following?

A. Anit-rotational feature

B. Ferrule effect

C. Positive horizontal stop

D. Adequate apical seal

B

Statement 1: The length of a post should equal the crown length or one-third the length of the root.

Statement 2: When preparing a post space, a conservative, safe approach is to maintain 5 mm of gutta- percha.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

C

Peeso Reamers are the instrument of choice for preparing a post space. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peeso Reamers?

A. Non-cutting tips help follow the path of least resistance

B. Parallel sides help prevent undercuts

C. Available in six graduated sizes ranging from 0.7 to 1.7 mm in diameter

D. Engineered to break down low on the shank

E. All the above are features of peeso reamers.

D

Which of the following cement is recommended when cementing a prefabricated post & core?

A. Glass ionomer cement

B. Light cure ketac cement

C. Dual cure resin cement

D. Zinc oxide eugenol cement

C

For the prefabricated post and core project, which dental material below was utilized when fabricating the core portion?

A. Build-a-Core

B. CoreRestore2

C. Premise

D. Point 4 Ker

B

Statement 1: Cement is best carried into the canal space with a gates-glidden instrument.

Statement 2: Minimal to no adjustments should be made immediately after cementation of a cast post and core because the vibration from the bur could fracture the setting cement and result in premature failure.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

C

Which of the following statements is FALSE with regards to a prefabricated post & core build up?

A. The post should allow for adequate coronal length without interfering with opposing occlusion.

B. Tooth fractures may occur due to the two-piece design.

C. The post should fit the entire canal space length actively with an intimate adaptation.

D. A tooth may be restored immediately following the placement of a prefabricated post and core build

up.

E. All the above are true statements.

C

When treatment planning for a 3 unit anterior FPD, which of the following is a contraindication for a metal ceramic FPD?

A. Active periodontal disease

B. An abutment with a cast post & core

C. Patients with parafunctional habits

D. Answers A and B

E. Answers B and C

A

Statement 1: For the facial reduction of a metal ceramic anterior crown preparation, there should be two planes of reduction to avoid over-contoured porcelain.

Statement 2: If an anterior tooth has only one plane of reduction for a metal ceramic crown, the prep may violate the pulp.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

A

When preparing a metal ceramic anterior FPD, what is the appropriate amount of lingual reduction?

A. Reduce 0.7 - 1.0mm for porcelain coverage

B. Reduce 1.0 - 2.0mm for porcelain coverage

C. Reduce 0.5 - 0.7mm for metal coverage

D. Answers A and C

E. Answers B and C

D

Statement 1: The ideal location of the wings for a MCC anterior FPD is 2mm lingual to the proximal contact on the side away from connector.

Statement 2: The main purpose of the wings is to preserve tooth structure.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

C

Which of the following are requirements for a modified ridge lap pontic?

A. Compact

B. Facial to crest of ridge

C. Slightly wider mesiodistally at the facial aspect

D. More narrow at the lingual aspect

E. All the above are requirements.

E

Which of the following items DOES NOT need to be included on a dentist's work authorization form that is sent to the dental laboratory when requesting fabrication of a fixed partial denture because the lab can determine it once the case is waxed up?

A. The type of metal alloy you want to be used.

B. The type of pontic you want to be used.

C. The type of occlusal scheme you desire.

D. The type of connector you want to be used for the case.

E. All of the above should all be included on the work authorization form from the dentist.

E

Which of the following statements is false in regards to requirements for dies and working casts for FPD cast restorations?

A. They need to be accurate and must be a true representation of the prepared surfaces.

B. You must be able to clearly visualize all margins.

C. The #1 die must be separate as it is used to establish the wax pattern.

D. They should be poured using a dental stone that has been vacuum mixed.

E. They must be poured using Type IV Dental Stone.

C

You are consistently having trouble trapping bubbles when you pour your master impression, so you review the basics described in class and your textbook. Which of the following suggestion would NOT be a correct

means of handling the dental stone used to pour up a final impression for a cast restoration?

A. Mechanically mix the dental stone under vacuum.

B. Use the manufacturer's suggested water/powder ratios.

C. Spray the impression with a surface tension reducer or debubblizer prior to pouring.

D. Answers A, B, and C are all correct means for handling the dental stone used to pour a final impression for a cast restoration.

D

Statement 1: When submitting a patient case to a dental laboratory, proper articulation of the opposing casts (providing an accurate mounting of casts and/or an accurate bite registration) is one of the responsibilities of the dentist.

Statement 2: If the dentist properly submits the case, there is no need to send the impression.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

B

Which of the following is not an ideal physical property for a post?

A: Adequate retention within the root

B: Maximum retention of the core

C: Maximum protection of the crown margin cement seal

D: Radiopaque

E: All the above are ideal properties for a post.

E

A new 28 year old patient calls your office to schedule an emergency

appointment today. The patient's chief complaint is that her lower left 1st molar is hurting her and she has been in severe pain for 2 days. Your office assistant places the patient on hold and asks you how to proceed with the patient since the office will be closing in 15 minutes. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment decision for this scenario?

A: Refer the patient to an endodontist for RCT.

B: Refer the patient to an oral surgeon for an extraction.

C: Keep the office open until you can evaluate the tooth to determine the overall prognosis.

D: A or C are appropriate treatment decisions.

E: A, B and C are all appropriate treatment decisions.

C

A patient presents with a RCT tooth #12. A PA radiograph of the tooth

shows an adequate endodontic fill with no apical pathology. During the clinical evaluation, you find 2 adjacent walls are missing, a narrow root canal space and a short pulp chamber space. The tooth has adequate ferrule effect. What is the best, recommended treatment?

A: Cast post and core with a metal ceramic crown

B: Prefabricated post and core with a metal ceramic crown

C: Restore the access opening with resin

D: Tooth extraction

A

A new 55 year old patient presents to your office for a comprehensive

exam. After reviewing the patient's radiographs, you note that teeth #9 and #30 are endodontically treated. The clinical evaluation reveals that #9 and #30 are intact with small access openings restored with composite resins. What is the best, recommended treatment?

A: Place full coverage restorations on #9 and #30.

B: Place a full coverage restoration on #9 only.

C: Place a full coverage restoration on #30 only.

D: No further treatment necessary for #9 or #30.

C

A cast post and core needs to be slightly undersized compared to the canal to achieve optimal internal seating. After cementation of the cast post and core, immediate adjustments should be made to eliminate any undercuts in the preparation.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

B

Which of the following is NOT a property of a metallic post and composite resin core?

A: Passive

B: Active

C: Carbon fiber reinforced

D: Answers B and C

E: Answers A, B and C are all properties of a metallic post and composite resin core.

C

A post & core should have a positive occlusal seat to avoid the wedge-like

action of the post. Within the post space, the vertical wall will provide a positive seat or stop for the cast post and core.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

B

Which of the following improves resistance to dynamic occlusal loading,

helps maintain the cement seal of the crown and reduces the potential for stress concentration at the junction of the core and the post?

A: Anti-rotational feature

B: Large post diameter

C: Positive horizontal stop

D: Adequate apical seal

E: Ferrule effect

E

Final length of a post is limited by two factors: root morphology and

maintaining an apical seal. Ideally, a post should extend 4mm or more beyond the level of the alveolar bone.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

A

For a RCT #9, the core portion for a cast post & core should be convex

from the incisal edge to the lingual cingulum. The core portion of cast post & core must have similar height as the ideal preparation to improve the retention and resistance form of the definitive restoration.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

C

A 35 year old patient presents to your office for a comprehensive

examination. From the radiographs and clinical evaluation, you determine that tooth #11 has a large carious lesion on the distal-lingual wall which extends into the pulp chamber and 3mm of the incisal edge is fractured. What is the proper treatment sequence for this scenario?

1. Prepare the post space

2. Perform RCT

3. Remove the caries to determine prognosis and restorability

4. Prepare the coronal tooth structure for MCC

5. Place a temporary post and crown

A: 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

B: 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

C: 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

D: 3, 4, 2, 1, 5

E: 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

D

It is recommended to remove all undercuts within the post space

preparation prior to placing a prefabricated post and core. The coronal length of a parapost should be adequate for the adaptation of the core build up without interfering with the opposing dentition.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

C

For a prefabricated post and core, which dental material below should be utilized during the placement of the core portion?

A: Nexius Dual Cure Resin Cement

B: CoreRestore 2

C: Optibond Solo Plus

D: Answers B and C only

E: Answers A, B and C

D

Which of the following statements is false with regards to a prefabricated post & core build up?

A: Tooth fractures may occur due to the two-piece design.

B: The post should fit the entire canal space length passively.

C: A tooth may be prepped immediately following the placement of a prefabricated post and core build up.

D: A prefabricated post and core build up can be placed in an abutment tooth for a fixed partial denture.

E: All the above are true statements.

B or E

All of the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A: Due to its ability to bond to tooth structure, glass ionomer is ideally suited to be used as a core build-up material.

B: Endodontically treated teeth with a post length equal to or greater than that of the clinical crown had a success rate of 97.5%.

C: Eliminating the ring liner will decrease the setting expansion of the investment.

D: All the above are true statements.

E: All the above are false statements.

A

Which of the following could serve as an anti-rotational feature for a cast post and core?

A: A vertical wall in the preparation.

B: A groove placed within the thickest wall of the post/core space

C: A root canal space with a ribbon (figure 8) or oblong shape

D: Answers A and C only

E: Answers A, B and C

E

Studies have shown that there is significant difference in leakage within the apical seal area when gutta-percha is removed with either rotary instruments or hot instruments. Since an IRM provisional restoration seals so well, there is no need to quickly place the definitive post & core and final restoration.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

D

Some considerations in treatment planning a fixed partial denture include:

1. root length

2. root form

3. patient gender

A: 1 and 2

B: 1 and 3

C: 2 and 3

D: All of the above

E: None of the above

A

The flexion of a fixed partial denture will increase eight fold if the:

1. span length is doubled.

2. occlusal-gingival height of the connectors are decreased by 1⁄2.

3. the buccal-lingual width of the connectors are decreased by 1⁄2.

A: 1 and 2

B:1 and 3

C:2 and 3

D: All of the above

E: None of the above

A

The maximum divergence of the long axis of abutment teeth being used

for fixed partial denture abutments is 45 ̊. When required, periodontal surgery should be completed after fixed partial denture fabrication.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

D

Acceptable treatment plans considered for replacing a missing #30 include a(n):

1. 2-unit FPD cantilevering pontic #30 from abutment #29.

2. 3-unit FPD with pontic #30 and abutments #29 and 31.

3. an implant-supported crown #30.

A:1 and 2

B:1 and 3

C: 2 and 3

D: All of the above

E: None of the above

C

Which of the following is the proper sequence when assessing and

adjusting a patient's FPD prior to cementation?

1. Occlusion

2. Proximal contacts

3. Margins

4. Internal adaptation

5. Pontic contacts

A: 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

B: 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

C: 4, 5, 3, 2, 1

D: 2, 5, 4, 3, 1

E: 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

D

Which of the following may occur if a restoration's proximal contacts are too loose or open?

A: Food impaction

B: Alveolar bone loss

C: Incomplete seating of the restoration

D: Answers A and B only

E: Answers A, B and C

D

Which of the following can potentially cause the marginal discrepancy identified as overhang?

A: Overpolishing

B: Inaccurate die trimming

C: Undercontoured wax patterns

D: All of the above

E: None of the above

B

Which of the following articulating disclosing media is least likely to be accurate due to its thickness?

A: Articulating paper

B: Articulating film

C: Indicator impression

D: Shim stock

A

In regards to restoring endodontically treated teeth, what primary purpose does a post provide/serve?

A. Reinforces the root of the tooth

B. Retains the core

C. Provides ferrule effect

D. Both answers A and B

B

With a custom cast post and core, the goal is to obtain a smaller casting. Which of the following WOULD NOT result in a smaller casting?

A. Add extra water (1cc or 2 cc) when mixing the investment which will decrease the setting expansion of the investment.

B. Eliminate the ring liner which will decrease the setting expansion of the investment.

C. Use a higher burn out temperature which will decrease the thermal expansion of the investment.

D. All of the above would result in a smaller casting.

C

All of the following statements in regards to the "ferrule effect" are true EXCEPT one. Which one is that EXCEPTION?

A. Although the contrabevel, as advocated by Shillingburg, contributes only a small portion to the "ferrule effect" it still plays an important part in the stabilization of the definitive restoration.

B. The ferrule effect improves resistance to dynamic occlusal loading, helps maintain the cement seal of the crown and reduces the potential for stress concentration at the junction of the core and the post.

C. Post and core in combination with the artificial crown provides coronoradicular stabilization.

D. The encirclement of approximately 2 mm of vertical axial tooth structure within the walls of a crown creates a "ferrule effect" around the tooth to protect it from fracture.

A

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. An endodontically treated posterior tooth should at minimum be restored with a definitive restoration that provides cuspal coverage.

B. If a composite resin core is utilized to "build-up" an endodontically treated tooth, then the final impression for the definitive crown should be delayed due to dimensional changes as a result of water sorption.

C. Due to its ability to bond to tooth structure, glass ionomer is ideally suited to be used as a core build- up material.

D. None of the above are false (all of the above statements are true).

C

Which of the following could serve as a vertical wall/anti-rotational feature for a cast post and core?

A. A root canal space with a circular shape

B. A vertical wall in the preparation

C. A root canal space with a ribbon or oblong shape

D. Both answers A and B

E. Both answers B and C

E

Statement 1: Every endodontically treated tooth must have a post placed to reinforce the root.

Statement 2: In order to protect the clinical crown, every endodontically treated tooth must be restored with a cast restoration that covers the cusps.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

D

Statement 1: Studies have shown that there is no significant difference in leakage within the apical seal area when gutta-percha is removed with either rotary instruments or hot instruments.

Statement 2: Since an IRM provisional restoration seals the access well, the definitive post and core and final restoration can be delayed for several months.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

B

Statement 1: The final length of post is limited by root morphology and the need to maintain an adequate apical seal.

Statement 2: Endodontically treated teeth with a post length equal to or greater than that of the clinical crown had a success rate of 97.5%.

A. Both statements are true.

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D. Both statements are false.

A

Which of the following statements describes best how tight the proximal contacts should be in a new fixed prosthesis?

A. Unwaxed floss should snap through relatively easily.

B. They should be similar to contacts of the adjacent teeth.

C. Unwaxed floss should slide through relatively easily.

D. They should be tighter than contacts of the adjacent teeth.

B

Which of the following occlusal contacts should be eliminated in an attempt to achieve anterior guidance?

A. Blue marks on maxillary canines

B. Red marks on mandibular canines

C. Blue marks on maxillary premolars

D. Red marks on mandibular premolars

D

T/F: The maximum divergence of the long axis of abutment teeth being used for fixed partial denture abutments is 30?

True

All of the following statements regarding electrochemical etching are true EXCEPT for one. Which one is that EXCEPTION?

A: The purpose of the electrochemical etch is to create voids and crevices in the metal into which a composite resin luting agent can flow.

B: The appropriate choice of a one-step electrochemical etching technique or a two-step electrochemical etching technique is alloy dependent.

C: Most dental laboratories do not like using electrochemical etching due

to increased occupational risks associated with this technique.

D: Electrochemical etching is a highly effective means of increasing the bond strengths when utilizing unreactive gold-based alloys.

E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

D

Statement 1: When porcelain bonding, silane enhances both the surface reactivity of feldspathic porcelain and the bond strength to resin.

Statement 2: There is a direct correlation between the amount of silane used and the resulting bond strength (i.e. the more silane used, the higher the resulting bond strength).

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

B

All of the following statements regarding composite luting agents are true EXCEPT for one. Which one is that EXCEPTION?

A: Composite luting agents exhibit water sorption in the oral cavity.

B: Composite luting agents are filled 50% to 70% by weight with glass or silica to improve marginal wear resistance.

C: Composite luting agents generally exhibit higher compressive strengths than other traditional cements.

D: A light-activated composite luting agent should be utilized for metal bonding.

E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

D

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A: Gingival inflammation and bone loss are two possible adverse effects caused by the use of a nickel containing alloy crown in an individual who has a nickel allergy.

B: With some cements, the phosphate group of 10-methacryloloxydecl dihydrogen phosphate (MDP) is active and reacts with the metal.

C: Oxygen inhibits the free radical polymerization in composite resin luting agents.

D: If a patient states that they are unable to wear cheap jewelry, the dentist should not utilize any nickel containing alloys in their mouth.

E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

E

All of the following statements regarding tin plating noble metal alloys are true EXCEPT one. Which one is that EXCEPTION?

A: Tin plating can provide a 3-fold increase in bond strength.

B: A tin plated surface has enhanced wettability.

C: A tin plated surface has enhanced micromechanical retention.

D: A tin plated surface provides free radicals that are available for chemical interaction.

E: A, B, C and D are all true statements.

D

Which is the most correct sequence of steps for surface preparation when using a resin luting agent with a feldspathic porcelain all-ceramic restoration?

A: Etch with phosphoric acid, place silane, place the resin

B: Etch with hydrofluoric acid, place silane, place the resin

C: Etch with phosphoric acid, place a metal primer, place the resin

D: Etch with hydrofluoric acid, place a metal primer, place the resin

B

T/F: A 43 year old female patient complains of pain when biting on tooth #30. The tooth has an existing large MOD amalgam (placed 10 years ago) that appears to be intact. There is no reported pain to hot or cold and cold testing elicits no response from the tooth. The tooth is very painful to biting pressure and percussion. Periodontal probing depths are 3mms or less. Slight bleeding is observed during probing. Radiographically, the tooth and periodontium appear to be within normal limits, though the amalgam restoration appears deep. Cracked tooth syndrome is the likely diagnosis for this tooth.

False

Statement 1: A tooth with enamel craze lines should be restored as soon as possible with a cuspal coverage restoration to prevent further cracking of the tooth. Statement 2: Cracked tooth syndrome occurs more often in women than in men.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

D

You have diagnosed tooth #18 with cracked tooth syndrome. The tooth

has an existing conservative MOD amalgam restoration. The dental pulp tests vital and healthy. Select all of the restorations that could be considered appropriate for this case.

1. Resin-bonded MOD amalgam

2. MODBL cuspal coverage amalgam

3. MOD resin composite

4. MOD ceramic inlay

5. PFM Crown

6. MOD gold inlay

7. MODBL gold onlay

8. Full gold crown

A: 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8

B: 2, 5, 7, 8

C:1, 3, 4

D:5, 7, 8

E: All are acceptable restorations for this tooth.

B

Which of the following clinical tests is least diagnostic for cracked tooth syndrome?

A: Periapical radiograph B: Bite test

C: Transillumination

D: Staining with dye

A

Which of the following is an example of indirect diagnosis for cracked tooth syndrome?

A: Removing an existing restoration to see if the tooth has a crack.

B: Taking multiple radiographs at different angulations to visualize the crack.

C: Place an orthodontic band or temporary crown on the tooth and waiting to see if symptoms subside.

D: Asking the patient to return to the clinic for follow-up. In the interim, they should try to pay attention to their symptoms in order to identify the offending tooth.

C

Statement 1: The goal of treatment for cracked tooth syndrome is to stop

crack propagation by splinting and stabilizing the tooth sections that are separated by the crack. Statement 2: Cracked tooth syndrome often occurs in sound teeth with no restorations.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

A

At a clinical exam, stained margins are detected around a class V composite resin restoration. The patient presented excellent oral hygiene, with no biofilm accumulation in the area. No marginal gaps were detected. The caries risk status of the patient was determined to be low. Due to esthetic reasons, a replacement was planned for the restoration. After removal of the restorative material, softened dentin was found at the bottom of the cavity. What is the most correct diagnostic for this lesion?

A: Residual caries

B: Active secondary caries C: Arrested secondary caries

D: Active primary caries

A

The development of secondary caries is modulated by different factors.

Which factors from the list below increase the risk for secondary caries development?

1. Poor marginal adaptation of restoration.

2. Presence of amalgam restorations.

3. Improper surface polishing of restorations.

A:1 and 2

B: 1 and 3

C:2 and 3

D: 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

B

The development of secondary caries is modulated by different factors. Which factors from the list below increase the risk for secondary caries development?

1. Poor marginal adaptation of restoration.

2. Presence of amalgam restorations.

3. Improper surface polishing of restorations.

A:1 and 2

B: 1 and 3

C: 2 and 3

D: 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

B

Which of the following explain the greater risk for the development of secondary caries on the cervical margins of proximal restorations?

A: There is no increased risk for the development of secondary caries on the cervical margins of proximal restorations.

B: Difficulties on the restorative procedure (improper moisture control, no direct visual access).

C: Cervical margins may be on root dentin, which is more susceptible to

demineralization than enamel.

D: Answers B and C are correct.

E: None of the above

D

The correct diagnostic of secondary caries is a fundamental part of the

management of dental caries and has many implications. Which of the following IS NOT relevant?

A: Avoid incorrect treatment plan that may end up feeding the Repeat

Restoration Cycle.

B: Depending on the activity of the secondary caries lesion, different restorative alternatives (direct or indirect) may be adopted.

C: The incorrect diagnostic may result in billions of dollars spent in restorative treatment worldwide.

D: The activity of the secondary caries lesion will determine the need for preventive and therapeutic measures.

B

Ditching and staining around amalgam fillings and staining around tooth- colored restorations are good predictors of active secondary caries.

A: The statement is correct.

B: The statement is correct, but only for the amalgam restorations.

C: The statement is correct, but only for the tooth-colored restorations.

D: The statement is false.

D

Which of the following best describes the most susceptible areas for dental plaque stagnation?

A: Cusp tips, cervical area near gingival margins, and pits and fissures

B: Proximal surfaces, lingual surfaces, and cusp tips

C: Pits and fissures, cervical area near gingival margins, and proximal surfaces

D: Cervical area near gingival margins, lingual surfaces, and proximal surfaces

C

Radiographic examination for the detection of secondary caries is:

A: valuable in proximal surfaces, although amalgam restorations may hide the secondary carious lesion.

B: extremely valuable, independent of the type of restorative material used.

C: extremely valuable for detection of secondary caries on buccal and lingual surfaces.

D: of no value, therefore it should not be considered as a detection tool for secondary caries lesions.

A

When selecting the restorative material for a patient with high caries risk

and active secondary caries lesions, how important is the fluoride-releasing property?

A: Very important there is strong clinical evidence showing that they can

prevent secondary caries.

B: Important according to laboratorial studies. However, there is no clear evidence that it may prevent secondary caries clinically.

C: Irrelevant it has been proved that all fluoride-containing restorative materials cannot release fluoride in the ionic form, therefore, it cannot prevent secondary caries.

D: None of the above

B

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a resin bonded fixed partial denture?

A: Increased risk of pulpal involvement

B: Increased risk of gingival hemorrhaging while preparing the finish line

C: Preparations can be difficult to evaluate clinically.

D: Due to the large amount of dentin exposed, patients will experience increased temperature sensitivity.

E: All of the above are disadvantages of resin bond fixed partial dentures.

C

Statement 1: Resin bonded fixed partial dentures are contraindicated for

patients with abutment teeth with short clinical crown length (incisal- gingival).

Statement 2: Resin bonded fixed partial dentures are indicated for patients with deep vertical overbites.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

B

All of the following are considered a contraindication for selecting CAD/CAM all ceramic crowns EXCEPT one. Which one is that EXCEPTION?

A: Preparations with supragingival lingual finish lines

B: Preparations with short axial wall height

C: Posterior preparations with maximum occlusal clearance of 1.0mm

D: Maximum shoulder finish line width of 0.7mm

E: All of the above are contraindications for CAD/CAM all ceramic crowns.

A

Statement 1: When designing an anterior E4D crown, the material

thickness should be 2mm at the incisal edge of the restoration.

Statement 2: The proper placement for the sprue for an anterior E4D crown should be at the most gingival position on the facial surface.

A: Both statements are true.

B: The first statement is true and the second statement is false.

C: The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

D: Both statements are false.

B