PSB 3004C Final

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240 Terms

1
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Two important motor nuclei, the substantia nigra and the ____ nucleus, are contained within the ____.

a. raphe; telencephalon

b. oculomotor; diencephalon

c. red; midbrain

d. caudate; brainstem

c. red; midbrain

2
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Which portion of the body is represented most medially in the somatosensory cortex?

a. thumb

b. lip

c. hand

d. leg

d. leg

3
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Phantom limb pain is an example of ____ pain.

a. psychosomatic

b. neuropathic

c. naturopathic

d. intractable

b. neuropathic

4
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The canals of the cochlea are filled with

a. fluid

b. otoliths

c. ampullae

d. air

a. fluid

5
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A fifth taste, called ____, is apparently mediated by a type of ____.

a. umami; metabotropic glutamate receptor

b. edamame; ligand-gated Na+ channel

c. edamame; GABA receptors

d. umami; ligand-gated Na+ channel

a. umami; metabotropic glutamate receptor

6
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A complex set of commands to muscles that established before a behavior starts is called

a. motor plan

b. closed-loop program

c. temporary paralysis

d. ballistic event

a. motor plan

7
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Thick and thin filaments of muscles are made up of

a. actin and myosin

b. synergists and antagonists

c. fast and slow fibers

d. intrafusal and extrafusal fibers

a. actin and myosin

8
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Evidence of the effect of an enriched experience on the rat brain is

a. increased dendritic branching

b. more oblique dendrites

c. fewer dendritic terminals

d. apical dominance among dendrites

a. increased dendritic branching

9
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In the ____ task, a single stimulus or stimulus location is held in an attentional spotlight.

a. divided attention

b. peripheral spatial cuing

c. sustained-attention

d. attentional blink

c. sustained-attention

10
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Which structure has been shown to be involved in sustained attention?

a. basal ganglia and lateral geniculate nucleus

b. frontal cortex and basal ganglia

c. lateral geniculate nucleus and superior colliculus

d. superior colliculus

c. lateral geniculate nucleus and superior colliculus

11
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The receptive fields of retinal ganglion cells are

a. eccentric

b. concentric

c. complex

d. hypercomplex

b. concentric

12
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Which type of cells give rise to brain tumors?

a. glial cells

b. multipolar cells

c. granule cells

d. pyramidal cells

a. glial cells

13
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Fibers that carry info away from the brain are called ____, whereas fibers that carry info towards the brain are called ____.

a. output zones; input zones

b. cranial nerves, spinal nerves

c. sensory nerves, motor nerves

d. efferents, afferents

d. efferents, afferents

14
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Damage to the locus coeruleus would result in decreased production of

a. dopamine

b. norepinephrine

c. acetylcholine

d. serotonin

b. norepinephrine

15
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Neuronal and hormonal communication both involve

a. movement of materials through bloodstream

b. voluntary control

c. specialized receptor molecules

d. all-or-none impulses

c. specialized receptor molecules

16
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Which of the following is most important in determining whether an adult male rat and a female rat will mate?

a. size of the female

b. willingness of the female

c. size of the male

d. assertiveness of the male

b. willingness of the female

17
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Which statement regarding gene expression is true?

a. gene expression in vertebrates is predetermined result of mitotic lineages

b. environmental factors, including experience, affect gene expression and thus cell differentiation

c. in vertebrates, gene expression in neural cells is independent of signals from the external environment

d. gene expression and cell differentiation in C. elegans is regulated by cell-cell interactions

b. environmental factors, including experience, affect gene expression and thus cell differentiation

18
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Typically, human patients with bilateral damage to the amygdala show a marked impairment in the ability to recognize expressions of ___ in other people.

a. sadness

b. pleasure

c. fear

d. anger

c. fear

19
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Abnormal visual tracking of moving objects is a symptom associated with ___.

a. OCD

b. schizophrenia

c. depression

d. panic

b. schizophrenia

20
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Which technique could be used to determine whether the receptors of a particular hormone are located in a specific type of cell?

a. both immunocytochemistry and autoradiography

b. immunocytochemistry

c. autoradiography

d. radioimmunoassay

a. both immunocytochemistry and autoradiography

21
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For most senses, the sensory pathway...

a. passes through the thalamus

b. ends at the spinal cord

c. goes directly to its designated area of cortex

d. passes through the temporal cortex

a. passes through the thalamus

22
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The progressive loss of sensitivity of a sensory receptor as a consequence of sustained stimulation is known as

a. tonic receptors

b. specific nerve energy

c. labeled lines

d. adaptation

d. adaptation

23
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According to the range fractionation hypothesis

a. multiple nerve cells in a particular sensory system have approximately the same threshold

b. specific nerve cells can act as specialists in particular segments of an intensity scale

c. multiple sensory cells respond to exactly the same range of stimulus energies

d. a large group of nerve cells can only respond to a small range of stimulus intensities

b. specific nerve cells can act as specialists in particular segments of an intensity scale

24
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The translation of stimulus energy into nerve cell impulses is called

a. filtration

b. coding

c. analgesia

d. masking

b. coding

25
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The generator potential produced by a Pacinian corpuscle in response to mechanical stimulation is

a. hyperpolarizing

b. greater than 0

c. all-or-none

d. proportional to the stimulus intensity

d. proportional to the stimulus intensity

26
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The brain can differentiate between each sensory modality because

a. the APs, sent along the same nerve tract, get sorted by the thalamus

b. each sensory input, passing through the same lines, triggers APs in a different pattern

c. the APs for each one is sent along separate nerve tracts

d. each sense uses different NTs

c. the APs for each one is sent along separate nerve tracts

27
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Most sensory fibers do not fire more than

a. 1200 impulses per second

b. 1200 impulses per minute

c. once per second

d. 10 impulses per second

a. 1200 impulses per second

28
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The term "adequate stimulus" refers to

a. the type of stimulus for which a given sensory system is particularly adapted

b. radio-frequency signals

c. the lowest level of a stimulus that elicits a response

d. a highly reliable stimulus

a. the type of stimulus for which a given sensory system is particularly adapted

29
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Cortical neurons that respond to info from more than one sensory modality are know as

a. association cortex neurons

b. polymodal cells

c. hypercomplex cells

d. Betz cells

b. polymodal cells

30
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Descending fibers from the brainstem directly ____ dorsal horn cells that transmit ____ info.

a. inhibit; motor

b. stimulate; motor

c. stimulate; pain

d. inhibit; pain

d. inhibit; pain

31
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Afferent fibers from the periphery carry nociceptive info to the dorsal horn neurons, whose axons immediately

a. cross the midline and the ascend

b. cross the midline and terminate in the midbrain, which then mediates vocalizations, perception, and other pain-related behaviors

c. ascend to the brainstem where pain info crosses the midline before synapsing in the thalamus

d. directly stimulate the cingulate cortex

a. cross the midline and the ascend

32
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Which substance is NOT important in mediating pain perception?

a. substance P

b. natriuretic polypeptide B

c. serotonin

d. histamine

b. natriuretic polypeptide B

33
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A dermatome

a. overlaps with other dermatomes

b. is an area on the skin that send inputs to the same dorsal root of the spinal cord as other dermatomes

c. is innervated by peripheral nerves and does not overlap with other dermatomes

d. is innervated by multiple spinal nerves

a. overlaps with other dermatomes

34
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The dorsal column system crosses to the contralateral side of the nervous system at the level of the

a. cerebral cortex

b. thalamus

c. spinal cord

d. medulla

d. medulla

35
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Which skin receptors are especially sensitive to stretching of the skin?

a. Messiner's corpuscles

b. Ruffini's endings

c. Pacinian corpuscles

d. Merkel's discs

b. Ruffini's endings

36
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The receptive fields of ____ are large and have vague borders.

a. Messiner's corpuscles

b. Pacinian corpuscles

c. Merkel's discs

d. free nerve ending

b. Pacinian corpuscles

37
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Which receptors are fast-adapting?

a. Messiner's corpuscles and Markel's discs

b. Merkel's discs and Ruffini's ednings

c. Messiner's and Pacinian corpuscles

d. Ruffini's endings and Painian corpuscles

c. Messiner's and Pacinian corpuscles

38
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Stimulation of the ____ are can induce ____.

a. thalamus; analgesia

b. periaqueductal grey; analgesia

c. periaqueductal gray; pain

d. thalamus; pain

b. periaqueductal grey; analgesia

39
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The decibel scale is a measurement

a. of change in sound

b. of sound frequency

c. of sound pressure

d. relative to the sound of a whisper

c. of sound pressure

40
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Fluid builds up in the middle ear of children born with cleft palates. This condition

a. does not affect hearing, fluid conducts sound

b. irreparably damages the cochlea, so these children will need cochlear implants

c. dampens auditory sensations because it restricts movement of the tympanic membrane

d. distorts hearing because it makes the ossicles move more freely

c. dampens auditory sensations because it restricts movement of the tympanic membrane

41
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The stapes connects to the

a. round window

b. oval window

c. tympanic membrane

d. malleus

b. oval window

42
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There are about ____ inner hair cells in the human ear.

a. 3500

b. 7500

c. 12500

d. 1500

a. 3500

43
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The mechanical responses of the outer hair cells appear to fine-tune the organ of Corti and

a. help discriminate frequencies

b. help determine loudness

c. amplify sound

d. modify sound intensity

a. help discriminate frequencies

44
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The auditory stimulus is transduced into electrical signals by

a. otoliths

b. the cochlear microphonic

c. hair cells

d. ossicles

c. hair cells

45
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Several regions of the auditory cortex show ____ mapping.

a. tomographic

b. topographic

c. tonotopic

d. tonic

c. tonotopic

46
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Cortical processing of the "what" aspects of sound appears to be accomplished by a ____ stream of processing involving the ____ lobe.

a. dorsal; frontal

b. ventral; occipital

c. ventral; temporal

d. dorsal; parietal

c. ventral; temporal

47
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Which structure is NOT part of the vestibular system?

a. utricle

b. saccule

c. semicircular canals

d. eustachian tube

d. eustachian tube

48
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____ are located on the sides of the tongue.

a. circumvallate papillae

b. foliate papillae

c. turbinate papillae

d. fungiform papillae

b. foliate papillae

49
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If you accidentally eat a toxic substance, you probably will detect a ____ taste.

a. salty

b. sour

c. sweet

d. bitter

d. bitter

50
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Taste info is reported to the brain via ____ cranial nerve(s).

a. two

b. three

c. four

d. one

b. three

51
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Outputs from the olfactory bulb do NOT make synaptic connections to the

a. hypothalamus

b. prepyriform cortex

c. amygdala

d. thalamus

d. thalamus

52
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Each olfactory receptor is a

a. bipolar cell w. a fine, unmyelinated axon

b. small multipolar cell w. fine, unmyelinated axon

c. bipolar cell w. myelinated axon

d. small multipolar cell w. myelinated axon

a. bipolar cell w. a fine, unmyelinated axon

53
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It is estimated that there are about ____ different odorant receptor genes in the human genome.

a. 1000

b. 100

c. 100000

d.10000

a. 1000

54
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If gustducin were discovered in cells located in the lungs, we would suspect that these cells were involved with

a. detecting the taste of food

b. releasing ghrelin

c. regulating insulin levels

d. protecting the body from microbes

d. protecting the body from microbes

55
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Although humans don't appear to have a functional vomeronasal organ, we do appear to be able to detect pheromones. The detection of pheromones probably occurs via

a. the accessory olfactory system

b. taste receptors in the nasal pathways

c. the olfactory system

d. the gustatory system

c. the olfactory system

56
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The vomeronasal system appears to specialize in detecting

a. phonemes

b. phosphenes

c. pheromones

d. photons

c. pheromones

57
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A high innervation ratio characterizes

a. slow fibers

b. control of coarse movement

c. a state of near paralysis

d. control of fine movements

b. control of coarse movement

58
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Muscles that act together are called

a. reciprocals

b. muscle fibers

c. antagonists

d. synergists

d. synergists

59
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Animal models for myasthenia gravis can be produced by

a. suppressing the animal's immune system

b. giving animals antibodies that attack Ach receptors

c. injecting animals with toxins that block NMJ

d. tiring the animal out on a perpetual treadmill

b. giving animals antibodies that attack Ach receptors

60
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Stretch of a muscle first activates

a. spinal motoneruons

b. slow motor fibers

c. muscle spindles

d. gamma efferents

c. muscle spindles

61
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The ____ of spinal reflexes can be modulated by descending projections from the brain.

a. none of the above

b. facilitation, but not inhibition

c. inhibition, but not facilitation

d. inhibition or facilitation

d. inhibition or facilitation

62
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In rats with spinal cord cuts, transplanting ____ into the cuts leads to the regeneration of corticospinal axons and some restoration of motor function.

a. ensheathing cells of the olfactory bulb

b. olfactory neurons

c. fetal motor neurons

d. undifferentiated epithelial cells

a. ensheathing cells of the olfactory bulb

63
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Nonprimary motor areas are especially active

a. when learning to move a robotic arm

b. following the execution of reflexes

c. following the completion of learned movements

d. while rehearsing a movement without executing it

d. while rehearsing a movement without executing it

64
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In general, species that have large cerebellums tend to display ____ motor behavior.

a. complex

b. open-loop

c. accurate

d. rapid

a. complex

65
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The difference between anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia is

a. retrograde amnesia is usually complete, whereas anterograde amnesia usually affects only hours or days before an accident.

b. anterograde amnesia is the inability to remember things that happened before the brain damage, whereas retrograde amnesia is the inability to acquire new skills after an injury.

c. retrograde amnesia can affect memories that were formed up to a year before an injury, whereas anterograde amnesia can affect memory formation after an injury.

d. retrograde amnesia affects autobiographical memories, whereas anterograde amnesia does not

c. retrograde amnesia can affect memories that were formed up to a year before an injury, whereas anterograde amnesia can affect memory formation after an injury.

66
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The delayed non-matching-to-sample test is a measure of ____ memory.

a. object recognition

b. verbal

c. perceptual skill

d. spatial location

a. object recognition

67
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Episodic memory concerns

a. autobiographical information

b. general knowledge

c. non-declarative information

d. semantic information

a. autobiographical information

68
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Entorhinal neurons that fire selectively when an animal crosses the intersection points of an abstract map of the local environment are ____ cells.

a. border

b. place

c. intersection

d. grid

d. grid

69
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In the hippocampus, commissural fibers carry information from the

a. entorhinal cortex

b. other hippocampus

c. cerebellum

d. subiculum

b. other hippocampus

70
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Experiments involving rats solving mazes have deonstrated the concept of

a. cognitive maps

b. iconic memory

c. instrumental learning

d. cell assemblies

a. cognitive maps

71
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In the formation of LTP, the entry of Ca2+ ions into the neuron activates ____, which are enzymes that ____ the activity of intracellular proteins.

a. adenylate cyclases; alter

b. adenylate cyclases; block

c. protein kinases; block

d. protein kinases; alter

d. protein kinases; alter

72
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Evidence indicates that working for object recognition is related especially to the

a. amygdala

b. caudate nucleus

c. hippocampus

d. extrastriate visual cortex

d. extrastriate visual cortex

73
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Main inputs to the hippocampal formation come via the

a. subiculum

b. perforant pathway

c. Shaffer collaterals

d. mossy fibers

b. perforant pathway

74
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In early selection models of attention, perceptual analysis and semantic meaning occur

a. before sensory registration

b. before the attentional bottleneck

c. after the attentional bottleneck

d. after awareness

c. after the attentional bottleneck

75
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Which type of cue will typically elicit the fastest reaction time to the target?

a. wrong

b. neutral

c. valid

d. invalid

c. valid

76
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Reflexive attention is also called

a. stimulus cuing

b. endogenous attention

c. exogenous attention

d. symbolic cuing

c. exogenous attention

77
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"Inhibition of return" refers to

a. impaired detection of stimuli at the former location of the task-irrelevant cue

b. the conscious inhibition of the feature search in a previously attended spatial location

c. the search for a sought-after item

d. the "popping out" of a task-irrelevant item

a. impaired detection of stimuli at the former location of the task-irrelevant cue

78
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Which type of attention can be sustained over the longest period of time?

a. endogenous

b. subconscious

c. conscious

d. exogenous

c. conscious

79
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Which structure guides attentional eye movements?

a. superior colliculus

b. intraparietal sulcus

c. pulvinar

d. lateral geniculate nucleus

a. superior colliculus

80
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The frontal eye field and IPS make up the cortical network called the

a. dorsal frontoparietal system

b. cortical attention network (CAN)

c. dorsoparietal junction

d. temporoparietal system

a. dorsal frontoparietal system

81
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Two of the main subdivisions of the prefrontal cortex are the ____ and ____ areas.

a. sensory; motor

b. motor; premotor

c. dorsolateral; mediolateral

d. dorsolateral; orbitofrontal

d. dorsolateral; orbitofrontal

82
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In most split-brain humans, words presented to the left visual field

a. can be written down

b. cannot be repeated verbally

c. can be spelled backwards

d. can be repeated accurately

b. cannot be repeated verbally

83
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The right-ear advantage for speech sounds is evident with simultaneous presentation of

a. adverbs

b. prepositions

c. vowel sounds

d. consonants

d. consonants

84
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Which influence has been proposed as an evolutionary pressure favoring hemispheric asymmetry and specialization?

a. right-ear advantage for speech sounds

b. greater activation of left hemisphere blood flow

c. differential use of the limbs

d. hormonal effects of the cerebral cortical asymmetry

c. differential use of the limbs

85
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Astereognosis is the

a. failure of binaural hearing

b. complete numbness of the fingers and hand

c. inability to identify objects by touch or manipulation

d. inability to recognize faces

c. inability to identify objects by touch or manipulation

86
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Patients with aphasia sometimes produce entirely new, nonsensical words called

a. nonfluent speech items

b. neologisms

c. agarphisms

d. anomias

b. neologisms

87
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Which symptom is NOT associated with aphasic patients?

a. confabulations

b. neologisms

c. paraphasia

d. apraxia

a. confabulations

88
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The angular gyrus links the

a. auditory region and Wernicke's area

b. visual region and Wernicke's area

c. interhemispheric regions

d. auditory and visual regions

b. visual region and Wernicke's area

89
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Children show evidence of sensitivity to the "rules" of language by the age of ____ months.

a. 12

b. 7

c. 18

d. 1

b. 7

90
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Brain regions of nonhuman primates in which electrical stimulation elicits vocalization seems to be those involved in

a. fine sensory analysis of acoustic information

b. delicate control of all musculature

c. defense, attack, feeding, and sex behaviors

d. higher-order cognitive functions

c. defense, attack, feeding, and sex behaviors

91
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Which statement about childhood aphasia is most true?

a. childhood aphasia and adult aphasia have similar recovery patterns

b. language abilities impaired by childhood brain injury are usually restored by adulthood

c. the brain's ability to compensate for loss due to damage increases progressively with age

d. aphasia produced by childhood brain injury is severe and permanent

b. language abilities impaired by childhood brain injury are usually restored by adulthood

92
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Movement of the eyes is controlled by the ____ muscles.

a. ciliary

b. orbital

c. extraocular

d. lentiform

c. extraocular

93
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There are about ____ million cones in the human eye.

a. 20

b. 4

c. 1

d. 100

b. 4

94
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The capture of one photon of light in a photorecptor can block the entry of ____ Na+ ion(s).

a. hundreds of thousands of

b. thousands of

c. one

d. millions of

d. millions of

95
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If the optic radiations were cut, which structure(s) would lose light information?

a. superior colliculus and pulvinar

b. primary visual cortex

c. superior colliculus and primary visual cortex

d. lateral geniculate nucleus and primary visual cortex

b. primary visual cortex

96
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A point of light in the upper left of the visual field projects onto the ____ part of the retina.

a. lower right

b. lower left

c. upper right

d. upper left

a. lower right

97
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The process that enhances the boundaries of visual object is called

a. edge detection

b. lateral inhibition

c. spectral opponency

d. spatial frequency filtration

b. lateral inhibition

98
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The dorsal stream system of visual processing is said to specialize in processing information about ____ whereas the ventral stream of visual processing is said to specialize in processing information about ____.

a. where; what

b. who; when

c. what; where

d. when; who

a. where; what

99
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Mirror neurons were first observed in the ____ of a monkey that was observing motor movements performed by another monkey.

a. premotor cortex

b. basal ganglia

c. primary motor cortex

d. supplementary motor area

a. premotor cortex

100
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Cortical area V4 has many cells that respond preferentially to

a. concentric and radial stimuli

b. motion of complex forms

c. motion

d. moving bars of light

a. concentric and radial stimuli