CERT_MASTER 1101 - WGU (D316) Final Practice Assessment (RIGHT ANSWERS ONLY) complete questions with expert solutions + rationales

USB port -

Explanation:

Internal USB 2 connections are made via 9-pin headers, which accept up to two 4-pin port connections while the 9th pin is to orient the cable correctly.

A new computer experiences a malfunction with a touch input device. A support engineer disassembles the computer to diagnose the problem. While troubleshooting, which component would the technician find as a 9-pin header on the motherboard

x1

x8

Explanation:

Each PCIe adapter card supports a specific number of lanes. Ideally, the card should be plugged into a port that supports the same number. Often a card will only work at x1 if in a mismatched port.

If insufficient slots are available, a card will fit in any port with an equal or greater number of lanes. The card may work at x8.

A PC tech plugs a x8 PCIe adapter card into a x16 socket. What speed would the card be capable of running? (Select all that apply.)

USB 3.2 Gen 2x1

Explanation:

Variations of USB 3.x introduced new connector form factors and faster transfer rates than previous versions. USB 3.2 Gen 2x1 is capable of speeds up to 10 Gbps.

A technician plugs a USB device into a computer and notices that the speeds are slightly less than expected. The USB port and device are USB 3.x devices, and the achieved speed is roughly 9 Gbps. What USB standard is in use?

DVI-I

Explanation:

DVI-I is a technology that is capable of connecting a digital source to a digital display or an analog source to an analog display. A VGA to DVI-I cable will connect your digital computer to an analog monitor.

A user tries to connect a second monitor to a computer. The computer has an available digital visual interface (DVI) connector that outputs a digital signal and the monitor has a video graphics array (VGA) connector. A technician recommends a VGA to which type of cable?

USB 3.2 Gen 2x2

Explanation:

The universal serial bus (USB) 3.2 specification deprecated some of the older terms used to describe the supported transfer rates. USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 SuperSpeed USB is capable of 2 x 10 Gbps.

Which current USB standard supports 2 x 10 Gbps speeds and uses a USB-C connector type?

Thermal grease

Explanation:

During the installation of the heat sink on top of the CPU, a small amount of thermal grease must be applied in an X-pattern to allow for heat transference to be most successful.

A hardware technician replaces the central processing unit (CPU) on an Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) motherboard. What must be applied when connecting the heat sink to the CPU?

WATTAGE RATING

Explanation:

The PSU's output capability is measured as its wattage rating. Power is measured in watts (W), calculated for electrical components as voltage multiplied by current (V*I).

A laptop technician replaces the power supply in a desktop system. To do this, the technician needs to know the output of the current power supply unit (PSU). What is the PSU output capability measured as?

20+4-pin

Explanation:

Most modular power supply units (PSUs) have a 20+4-pin P1 adapter cable for compatibility with older motherboards with a 20-pin port.

A technician builds a spare computer with an older motherboard and purchases a new modular power supply. What type of motherboard connector will the power supply most likely provide?

Flex

Explanation:

In flex mode, memory that is of equal value within each channel can work as dual-channel while the remainder of the memory will work in single-channel mod

A technician installs memory into a computer that supports a multi-channel configuration. A 4GB module is placed in bank A1 and a 16GB module is placed in bank B1. A diagnostic tool reports that 12GB is useable, but not as multi-channel. What mode does the system use in making all of the memory available?

Two processors combined in the same package

Explanation:

A multi-core central processing unit (CPU) is multiple processors combined in one. This means that there are multiple execution units and registers. This is referred to as chip level multiprocessing (CMP).

A user complains that a computer is too slow when opening numerous applications. A technician suggests purchasing a new computer that features CMP capabilities to handle the user's workload. Which statement describes the technician's suggestion?

5

Explanation:

RAID 5 requires a minimum of three drives but can be configured with more. When configuring RAID 5, an equal portion of each disk is used for parity.

An engineer configures 6 disks in a workstation to be part of a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) volume where one-sixth of the space on each disk will be used for parity. Which RAID type does the engineer implement?

Virtual RAM

Explanation:

The total amount of addressable memory (system RAM plus swap space) is referred to as virtual memory or virtual RAM. With virtual memory, the OS assigns memory locations to processes in 4-kilobyte chunks called pages.

If there is not enough system Random Access Memory (RAM), the memory space can be extended by using disk storage as a page file or swap space. What is this combination of addressable memory called?

Magnetic

Optical

Solid-State

Explanation:

Magnetic drives, commonly called hard disk drives (HDDs), store data on metal or glass platters that are coated with a magnetic substance.

Optical drives, such as Compact Discs (CDs), DVDs, and Blu-Ray drives, use a laser to read data that has been encoded on the surface of the disc.

A solid-state drive (SSD) uses flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage.

Non-volatile storage devices hold data when the system is powered off. These devices are also referred to as mass storage. What are the three types of technologies that mass storage devices use?

RAID 5 & RAID 0

Explanation:

RAID 5 needs at least 3 disks but can be configured with more, depending on the system's capacity. RAID 5 is a striping configuration with parity.

RAID 0 requires two or more disk drives. It works with as many disks as the computer can accommodate. It is a striping configuration where data is spread across the disks.

A computer has three disk drives. Which of the following RAID configurations will commonly be utilized with such a setup?

The firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.

The operating system boot loader is digitally signed.

Explanation:

Secure boot is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent a computer from being hijacked by malware. With secure boot, the computer firmware is configured with cryptographic keys.

With secure boot, the firmware can identify trusted code and ensure that the bootloader has been digitally signed by the OS vendor.

A critical system is set to use secure boot. What properties are characteristic of the secure boot process?

RAID 0

Explanation:

Since the data scientist needs speed and computing power and is not concerned about data loss, RAID 0 is the best option. RAID 0 uses striping and spreads data across all disks in the array, sacrificing redundancy for speed.

A data scientist needs to run complex algorithms and machine learning programs that require a significant amount of computing power. The scientist tells the company's IT pro that their current computer is too slow and their data is backed up daily. What RAID configuration would be best for the data scientist where they don't need redundancy?

Bad sectors

Bad blocks

Explanation:

Bad sectors may be found on a traditional hard disk. While bad sectors can be marked as unusable, having them present is usually a sign of a failing disk.

Bad blocks may be found on a hard disk. A block is a grouping of sectors. A single sector or multiple sectors in a block may have gone bad.

A hard disk drive in a system experiences extended read and write times. What is likely the cause?

Establish a theory of probable cause.

Explanation:

Establishing a theory of probable cause can include questioning the obvious. This might include questioning if there have been any system changes since the last use. If necessary, conducting research may be required.

Helpful tip > Before you can test a theory you will need to establish a theory first!

A support technician helps a user identify a problem with a newly installed application. The user states the application was working the day before. What does the technician do next?

Install a new system fan.

Use blanking plates.

Explanation:

Installing a new system fan will help with the system's airflow. A new fan will be free of any debris and will contain healthy components to run at optimal speed.

Always use blanking plates to cover up holes in the back or front of the PC. Holes can disrupt the airflow and decrease the effectiveness of the cooling systems.

A system suffers from occasional overheating while positioned safely away from other objects. Which solutions can be implemented to help promote airflow to cool down the internal components

Data required for a meeting is missing

Explanation:

It is important to realize that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences. A consequence is the result of the problem. Not being able to provide data is a consequence of having a problematic system.

A technician follows a best practice methodology when troubleshooting a problematic computer system. Which of the following represents a consequence of having a problematic computer?

Cause

Symptom

Consequence

Explanation: Problem Solving Process

Troubleshooting is problem-solving. It is important to realize that problems have causes, symptoms, and consequences. Knowing what issue the user or system is having helps define the symptoms of the problem. Identifying the symptom(s) allows one to properly assess a problem.

Once the symptoms are defined, narrow down the cause. Identifying the cause of the problem is an important problem-solving step. This could be a faulty network interface card.

Often, the consequence of the problem is that affected user(s) are unable to complete their work. Understanding the consequences of problems, allows the technician to prioritize problems.

A technician needs to troubleshoot problems. When problem-solving, what are the three items that define a problem?

Changing temperature

Dust and dirt

Explanation:

Chip creep is where an adapter works loose from its socket over time. This may happen perhaps because of temperature changes causing the plastic to flex over time.

In some cases, motherboard problems may be caused by dirt. Deposits of dust and dirt may build up and cause a connector to come loose.

A technician troubleshoots a motherboard issue. What the tech discovers is chip creep with a serial ATA (SATA) connector. What is the cause?

Check for faulty devices by removing one device at a time to see if this fixes the problem.

Check for faulty devices by removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time.

Check for a faulty CPU.

Explanation:

A faulty device can halt the POST process. One way to test this is by removing devices one at a time to see if it resolves the problem.

If a computer cannot pass POST, a faulty device could be to blame. Removing all non-essential devices, then adding them back one at a time will identify the problem device if it exists.

A faulty central processing unit (CPU) could keep POST from executing, so replacing the CPU chip with a known good one will confirm or eliminate this as a cause.

A user's computer powers on, but it does not pass the power on self-test (POST) and there is no display on the monitor. The IT specialist starts with the POST issue. Which of the following troubleshooting tests are appropriate in this situation?

Check the configuration of the video card.

Update the video card driver.

Explanation:

If the output resolution of the video card does not match the resolution of the display device's native resolution, the image on the screen may be distorted and the card needs to be configured correctly.

Updating the video card driver will install the most recent version of the driver, which should fix the configuration compatibility problem.

A user's monitor displays a distortedly large image. What troubleshooting steps on the computer should the IT specialist take?

Develop a new theory.

Escalate.

Explanation:

If the technician believes the problem is now beyond their ability to solve, they should escalate it through the proper channel.

After discovering the initial probable cause theory was wrong, the technician should develop a new theory based on what is known about the problem combined with what is now known not to work. If the technician believes their initial theory was the only solution within their skill set, they should escalate the problem.

After identifying the problem with a user's computer and collecting detailed information from the user about the problem, a technician believes they know the cause. However, when testing this theory, the technician discovers they were wrong and may not be capable of resolving the issue. What are the next troubleshooting steps for the technician?

Check that the vents are free from dust.

Check that the fan is working.

Explanation:

Overheating is the main cause of intermittent shutdowns for projectors. Dust in the vents of a projector is a likely cause of intermittent shutdowns because the blocked vents could lead to overheating.

When a projector shuts down intermittently, the technician should check that the fan is working. A projector uses a very strong bulb that becomes very hot and a faulty fan can cause overheating, which leads to shutdowns.

The projector in the conference room is experiencing intermittent shutdowns. The technician begins troubleshooting by checking all the connector cables. What are the next troubleshooting steps for the technician?

Faulty motherboard

Explanation:

Given all of the potential causes that were discounted by the technician, a faulty motherboard is the only available option that would cause a computer to have no power.

While troubleshooting a user's computer that has no power, the technician eliminated these possible causes: power supply, cabling, wall socket, and connection issue. Therefore, which of the following could be the problem?

MAN

Explanation:

A metropolitan area network (MAN) refers to a specific network type covering an area equivalent to a city or other municipality. The campus network is this type of network.

A college campus is spread throughout an entire city. There is a plan to upgrade the connectivity to all buildings for increased speed. What type do engineers upgrade?

Antenna Gain

Explanation:

Antenna gain is the amount that a signal is boosted by directionality. This focuses the signal in a single direction rather than spreading it over a wide area. Gain is measured in dBi (decibels isotropic).

A company implements a new wireless Infrastructure. During the installation, an engineer adjusts the signal of all antennae for optimal performance. Which setting does the engineer use to measure dBi?

1000BaseT

Explanation:

1000BASE-T refers to Gigabit Ethernet over copper twisted pair cabling. Gigabit Ethernet works at 1000 Mbps (or 1 Gbps). 1000BASE-T is the mainstream choice of standard for most LANs.

NOTE: 10GBASE-T refers to a copper cabling standard working at 10 Gbps.

A technician looks to wire an office for a medium-sized local area network (LAN). When considering the available standards and speeds, the technician decides to implement Gigabit Ethernet. What specific standard does the technician use?

Small core, long distances, long wavelength

Explanation:

Single-mode fiber (SMF) has a small core (8-10 microns) and is designed to carry a long wavelength over long distances.

An engineer plans a fiber cable implementation between two campus buildings about 50 meters apart. Due to the distance between the locations, the engineer selects single-mode fiber. What specifications does the engineer need to consider with this decision?

802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE)

Explanation:

The 802.3af standard allows powered devices to draw up to about 13 W. Power is supplied as 350mA@48V and limited to 15.4 W. Usable wattage usually falls around 13 W.

Others for reference:

The 802.3at (PoE+) standard allows powered devices to draw up to about 25 W, with a maximum current of 600 mA.

The 802.3bt (PoE++ or 4PPoE) supplies up to about 51 W (Type 3) or 73 W (Type 4) usable power.

An engineer plans a new wireless infrastructure rollout. The requirement is for access points that use 48V of power and 13 watts. Which specific standard does the engineer implement?

WI-FI

Explanation:

Every laptop, smartphone, and tablet supports a Wi-Fi radio. While some automobiles also offer built-in Wi-Fi, this technology is not used to pair two devices.

Engineers need to share data between the team's laptop devices that are are located in the same office space. The speed needs to be at least 50 Mbps. Which technology do the engineers use?

48

Explanation: 00-00-00-00-00-00

A MAC address consists of 48 binary digits, making it 6 bytes in size. MAC addresses are represented in hexadecimal and each hex digit represents half a byte.

How many binary digits are found within a media access control (MAC) address?

UDP

Explanation:

The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) provides unreliable, connectionless forwarding. UDP has less transmission overhead than TCP and is the protocol used with audio and video streams.

A company plans on live streaming a company-wide meeting once a month. Engineers prepare network equipment to allow the traffic. Which protocol do the engineers focus on?

137-139 - NetBIOS/NetBT

Explanation:

Ports 137-139 (UDP/TCP) are used for NETBIOS over TCP/IP communications. NETBIOS is used on a modern network to support networking features for legacy versions of Windows.

A manufacturing firm uses an older Windows NT computer to operate a unique piece of machinery. To support such a legacy system on the network, what common port settings are enabled for communications?

Low Earth orbital satellite internet access

Explanation:

Satellites positioned in low Earth orbit (LEO) have a drawback such that the satellites move relative to the surface of the Earth. Premises antennas must be provisioned with a motor so that they can periodically realign with the array.

A remote facility cannot utilize a wired internet connection for a short period. When relying on a wireless solution, the company uses a technology that must be provisioned with a motor so it can periodically realign with the array. Which internet access technology is in use?

UDP

Explanation:

The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is an unreliable, connectionless protocol. It is used in time-sensitive applications, such as audio or video. Lost data results in poor audio and video streaming

An organization conducts a weekly video conference from its home office to its field locations. Recently, employees at the field locations have been complaining of poor audio and video quality. Which protocol does an engineer monitor for performance issues?

ONT

Explanation:

The optical network terminal (ONT) installed at the customer's premises converts the optical signal to an electrical one. The ONT is connected to the customer's router using an RJ45 copper wire patch cord.

Note for wrong answers:

An optical line terminal (OLT) is located in a street cabinet. From the OLT, splitters direct each subscriber's traffic over a short length of fiber to an optical network terminal (ONT) installed at the customer's premises.

A connection to an internet service provider's (ISP's) network uses its nearest point of presence (PoP), such as a local telephone exchange.

A full fiber connection to a customer's building is implemented as a passive optical network (PON). In a PON, a single fiber cable is run from the point of presence to a street cabine

An organization experiences an internet outage. As fiber is being used, an engineer checks to see if the optical signal is being properly converted to an electrical signal. The router is connected using an RJ45 copper wire patch cord. What does the engineer check

DMARC

Explanation:

The Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) framework ensures that SPF and DKIM are being utilized effectively. DMARC specifies a policy mechanism for senders to specify how authentication failures should be treated.

An organization looks to harden email services. The systems administrator uses every possible option to help prevent SPAM and other anomalies. During the final stages of configuration, the systems administrator creates a policy within the Domain Name System (DNS) to handle authentication failures. Which record is being configured

FTPS

Explanation:

File Transfer Protocol-Secure (FTPS) allows a client to upload and download files from a network server. An FTPS server can be easily configured without the need for local user accounts.

A department within an organization would like to share a specific set of files with external users from a Windows 10 system. The users will also need to save files as well. Which solution does the systems administrator configure without needing to directly require Windows permissions?

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

Explanation:

The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update resources in an X.500 directory. It is widely supported in current directory products such as Windows Active Directory.

A network administrator adds several network printers to a business network. Users can install the printers easily by browsing resources that are available for use. Which protocol enables this capability within a Windows server-based network?

Configure QoS on the router.

Explanation:

The technician should suggest configuring quality of service (QoS) on the router to prioritize the port used by VoIP over any other type of protocol.

A small call center office asks their IT service provider to implement a voice-over-IP (VoIP) system for them. After discussing the office's needs, the technician learns that their ability to make and receive phone calls is critical. Considering this information, which of the following should the technician recommend?

NAS

Explanation:

A network access server (NAS) or network access point (NAP) is an access appliance, such as a switch, access point, a firewall, or a VPN gateway. It is the device that a system makes a connection to in order to access a network.

Wrong Answer Explanation:

A supplicant device is a device requesting access to a network. This includes a user's PC or laptop, or even a smart device.

An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is an authentication server that is located in the internal network. A supplicant device authenticates against an AAA server.

An authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server is often implemented using a protocol called Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS).

A support firm installs and configures network access control systems for organizations. This includes implementing the security mechanisms for local and remote computers to authenticate with an internal server system. A switch is put in place on the edge of the network to protect the server and protect against unauthorized traffic. What role does the switch play in the implementation?

Proxy

Explanation:

A proxy can perform a security function by acting as a content filter to block access to sites deemed inappropriate. A non-transparent proxy requires client configuration for the proxy server.

Wrong Answers Explanation:

A load balancer can be deployed to distribute client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool.

A unified threat management (UTM) appliance is one that enforces a variety of security policies and controls, combining the work of multiple security functions.

An embedded system is an electronic device that is designed to perform a specific, dedicated function. An embedded system does not describe the deployed service.

A systems administrator looks to control HTTP requests from client computers based on the time of day. What type of service does the administrator deploy when configuring clients in a non-transparent manner?

Patch cable

Explanation:

When troubleshooting connectivity on a wired network, the first thing the technician should check is the patch cable. Ensure that the RJ45 connectors are solidly connected to the cable, there are no obvious wear bends or breaks, and that it is properly connected to the device and the wall jack.

Wrong Answers Explanation

The NIC or driver software may be malfunctioning, however, this is not common, nor should it be the first step in troubleshooting connectivity issues.

The wall port is the port that connects the device to the local switch. It is uncommon for the wall port to have a physical issue that would cause no or intermittent connectivity.

The Wi-Fi adapter is an adapter used to connect to wireless networks.

A technician troubleshoots wired connectivity issues with devices. What should the technician check first to resolve a no or intermittent connectivity issue?

Bad Cabling

Faulty Port

Interference

Explanation:

Bad cabling can cause port flapping. If a cable has been pinched, twisted, or suffered any other type of physical damage, it may be faulty.

A port on a network interface card or the switch itself may be faulty. This could be caused by a number of issues, including a manufacturer's defect, damage from power, or it may simply be failing.

External interference is possible. While the path of the cabling is not known in the scenario, fluorescent lighting and other electronic devices might be causing interference.

A user complains about a faulty network connection on a laptop. A tech traces the Ethernet cable in the office to a direct connection in a 16-port smart switch. While investigating the switch's activity, it becomes apparent that port flapping is occurring. What does the tech troubleshoot as a possible cause?

Content Filtering

Explanation:

Content filters are used to block outgoing access to unauthorized websites and services. Preset or custom rules can be used.

An engineer investigates a new unified threat management appliance to replace an aging firewall. Which website browsing feature can the engineer expect the appliance to have?

Ethernet cable

NIC port

Switch port

Explanation:

A bad Ethernet cable, such as a cable that has a pinch or a kink in it, may experience intermittent connects and disconnects. Replacing the cable is recommended.

A network interface card (NIC) port may experience connection issues if the card has been physically damaged in any way.

As with a NIC port, a switch port can experience a malfunction. Such a malfunction in connectivity can be caused by a power surge or other physical damage.

An engineer troubleshooting a network connection identifies a port flapping problem. What should the engineer investigate as a possible cause?

Use a loopback tool to test for bad ports

Explanation:

After eliminating patch cables as a probable cause, the next step in troubleshooting internet connectivity is to test for bad ports using a loopback tool. This will verify the integrity of the network interface port by checking that it can receive a signal generated by itself.

When troubleshooting internet connectivity issues on a wired network, the first step is to make sure the patch cables are working and physically connected to the network ports. If that is not the problem, what is the next troubleshooting step?

Rapid elasticity

A company considers moving its infrastructure to the cloud. Management emphasizes the need to handle changes in resource usage in real-time. Which feature fulfills this need?

VMWare Workstation

Explanation:

VMWare Workstation would be the best choice of the available options. VMWare workstation is a type 2 hypervisor that would easily install in the Windows 10 operating system and provide the features the developer requires.

Wrong Answers Explanation:

Parallels Workstation is a type 2 hypervisor, however, it is software that is installed on a Mac computer to allow the virtualization of a guest operating system such as Windows 10.

VMWare ESXi is a type 1 hypervisor that is designed for bare-metal install in a server environment.

Hyper-V is a type 1 hypervisor. While Hyper-V is available in the Windows 10 operating system, the IT department installs a type 2.

A developer asks the IT department if virtualization would be possible to test software in a sandboxed environment. The developer's workstation runs Windows 10, the central processing unit (CPU) has virtualization technology enabled, and has plenty of resources for virtual machines. Which type 2 hypervisor does the IT staff install?

Public

A large technical firm deploys a cloud service. The service offers cloud storage along with web development capabilities. What deployment model does the firm utilize when a multi-tiered subscription option is available to the general consumers?

Escape

Why it's not sprawl: The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as virtual machine sprawl (VM sprawl). Such action may happen as a result of malicious activity.

A security team at a company discovers that malware is rapidly moving from one virtual machine to another in a live environment. What security issue is occurring?

The hypervisor is bare-metal.

The hypervisor is installed on and manages hardware directly.

An engineer configures a workstation for development testing by using virtualization. The engineer chooses to use a type 1 hypervisor. Which statements describe the environment?

Container

Wrong Answers Explanation:

A bare metal virtual platform means that a type 1 hypervisor is installed directly onto the computer and manages access to the host hardware without going through a host OS.

A hypervisor application that is installed onto a host OS itself is known as a type 2 hypervisor. VMWare Workstation and Parallels are examples.

Client-side virtualization refers to any solution designed to run on desktops or workstations. A traditional virtual machine (VM) runs on what is known as a hypervisor.

Systems administrators deploy a virtualization solution that separates host resources for each instance at the operating system level. Which solution is running?

Cloud computing

What service provides on-demand resources like server instances, file storage, databases, or applications over a network?

Rapid elasticity

Which cloud characteristic handles changes in demand requirements in real time?

Client-side virtualization

Which type of virtualization refers to any solution designed to run on ordinary desktops or workstations?

MDM

Explanation:

A mobile device management (MDM) system sets device policies for authentication, feature use (camera and microphone), and connectivity. MDM can also allow device resets and remote wipes.

Wrong Answers Explanation:

A mobile application management (MAM) system sets policies for apps that can process corporate data and prevents data transfer to personal apps.

Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise. This is a broad term that encompasses MDM and MAM.

Sync is an application feature that allows for the synchronization of data. Email, for example, is a popular application that features synchronization. Microsoft Exchange server features ActiveSync.

A company places restrictions on the specific components and ports of mobile devices. This includes USB ports and cameras. Which specific enterprise management solution does the company deploy for this purpose?

MAM

Explanation:

Mobile application management (MAM) is part of an enterprise mobility management (EMM) suite that sets policies for apps that can process corporate data and prevents data transfer to personal apps. This type of solution configures an enterprise-managed container or workspace.

A company realizes that it needs to implement a management solution for mobile phones. Which solution is specific to the restriction of apps installed from a device's app store?

2.5 in.

Explanation:

A 2.5-inch drive is the standard size for a laptop magnetic HDD. On laptops, it is also important to consider the depth of the drive, since those vary by manufacturer and model.

Wrong Answer Explanation:

A 3.5-inch drive is the standard size for a desktop magnetic HDD. This drive configuration is too large for most laptops to utilize internally. Laptop drives are commonly 2.5 inches.

A 1.8-inch drive is commonly an mSATA SSD drive, not an HDD.

The M.2 SSD adaptors interface directly with the PCI express bus. The most popular length is 80 mm.

A laptop technician in a large corporation needs to upgrade the hard drives on employee laptops. Currently, the laptops have standard 5400 rpm 500 Gb magnetic drives. The technician needs to know what physical drive size to order. What is the normal size for a laptop magnetic drive?

DDR version

A laptop technician needs to upgrade the RAM in multiple standardized laptops. Which of the following is the biggest key consideration when upgrading the RAM on the laptops?

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

A systems administrator is wanting to use a process in which the TCP/IP protocol is used to query and update an X.500 directory. What can be used to accomplish this task?

Ribbon cables

A technician needs to repair a laptop. Symptoms are that some keyboard characters are not typing properly and the fingerprint reader is not recognized. What type of component is the technician inspecting?

M.2

A technician plans an upgrade for several company laptops with new internal storage devices. The requirement is that the new devices interface with a PCI Express bus. What type of device does the technician use?

Bluetooth

USB

A universal asynchronous receiver transmitter (UART) port was traditionally a physical serial port in a legacy system. In a modern mobile device, how can a UART be utilized?

Twisted Nematic (TN)

A user complains about the quality of the display on a laptop. The user mentions that the laptop has been in use since the company started many years ago. IT determines that the display uses a very early thin film transistor (TFT) technology and will replace the laptop. Which TFT technology does the display use?

Calibration

A user reports a problem with a laptop to a company help desk. The user reports that the mouse cursor seems to move on its own. What does the help desk technician suspect is the problem?

Aging battery

AC Adapter

A user states that a smartphone does not hold a charge for as long as it did in the past and seems to charge slowly. The change was noticed over the last few months. What could be the cause?

Digitizer

Protective glass

A user traveling on business reports that a company owned device suffered damage to the screen during a trip. A technician notices cracks on the screen and determines that touch input is no longer recognized. Visual elements on the screen look fine. What components need replacing?

M.2

An employee at an organization requests a laptop upgrade. The request is for a laptop that is extremely lightweight. There is also a requirement for the fastest speeds possible in order to demo the company's software to potential clients. With these requirements in mind, which drive type should the laptop have?

EMM

Explanation:

Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise. The two main functions of the EMM suite are Mobile Device Management (MDM) and Mobile Application Management (MAM).

What is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise?

USB-C

While Micro-B USB is used for Android devices - they are being phased out which makes USB-C more modern

What is the modern Android-based smartphone and tablet connector for wired peripherals and charging?

PIN code

Badging

A college would like to implement a secured print solution so that print jobs do not arrive at a printer until the printer is physically interacted with. This will help prevent students from potentially picking up faculty print jobs. Which two physical security solutions does the IT department consider to accomplish this?

Toner cartridge

A printer technician receives a complaint from multiple users sharing a laser printer that the pages they are printing are faded or faint. Upon troubleshooting, the technician ruled out user and server settings. What hardware component of the laser printer needs replacing to fix this error?

The imaging drum is not properly losing its charge.

Explanation:

In the exposing stage, as the laser receives the image information, it fires a short pulse of light for each dot in the raster to neutralize the charge that was applied by the PCR. In this stage, the imaging drum loses its charge when functioning properly.

A printer technician troubleshoots a laser printer and determines that the exposing stage of the print job is the issue with print jobs printing incorrectly. What does the technician suspect is happening?

Laser printer maintenance

A printer technician works in a corporate office. Their office has multiple types of printers that require regular maintenance. Which type of printer maintenance includes replacing and properly disposing of a toner print cartridge?

Toner is loose in the printer.

A shared printer handles a lot of print jobs for a medium-sized company. As of late, all users are complaining about the print jobs having a speckled output. What does a printer maintenance technician find to be the problem?

Extruder

A technician that is new to 3D printers needs to call service for a malfunctioning printer. The technician explains that the problem is with what looks to be a print-head. Which component does the tech report as a problem?

Public

A company is moving towards a cloud deployment model and wants to ensure they select the right pay-as-you-go financing plan. Which deployment models will help the company achieve its cloud computing goals and financing concerns?

Drum

A user contacts a printer technician to report that every print job sent to a laser printer has lines of toner in the same location on every page that is printed. What does the technician suggest may need cleaning or replacing?

Duplex

Several users of a shared printer complain that the printer is printing on both sides of a sheet of paper when it should only print on one side. What setting does a technician change?

Replace the Fuser (it likely isn't reaching a high enough temperature to cleanly melt and attach the toner to paper)

The office laser printer starts printing pages that smudge easily. The IT specialist is proficient in the common printing defects of laser printers and knows what is causing the problem. What will the IT specialist do to fix the problem?

USB Stick > 2.5 HDD > mSATA > RAM > CPU Cache

NO > NO > NO > YES > YES

Based on the scenario - drag the storage devices to slowest and least volatile to fastest and most volatile

DisplayPort

To minimize cabling, audio and video can be sent over a single cable using HDMI or:

circuitry

A flickering image could also be caused by the displays backlight or what other component starting to fail?

burned out bulb

When working a projector makes a "pop" sound, this may be an indication of a:

Answers to display issues. 1Q> 1A, 2Q>2A, etc...

1A. Adjust Brightness/contrast

2A. Check or replace cabling

3A. Try to reactivate via touch or software

4A. Use automatic screensavers

5A. Calibrate color to output device

6A. Verify source in OSD menu

Troubleshooting display issues.

1Q. Image appears very dim

2Q. Color glitches. Purple or green horizontal lines

3Q. Stuck or dead pixels

4Q. Image burn-in creating ghosted elements

5Q. Artwork color output different than displays's

6Q. No image displayed

The RJ45 NIC Card & Sound Cards are both PCI

Graphics Video Card is PCIe x16

Wireless NIC Card is PCIe x1

Performance:

Identify PCI & PCIe slots.

PCI

PCIex1

PCIex8

PCIex16

SSD

GUI

Select components NOT integrated onto the motherboard

CPU Socket

Northbridge

CMOS

Firmware

Select components that ARE integrated onto the motherboard