Human Reproduction – Contraception, STDs, MTP & ART

A comprehensive set of question-and-answer flashcards covering contraceptive methods, sterilisation, MTP, STDs, AIDS, infertility causes, and major assisted reproductive technologies.

What two general qualities should an ideal contraceptive possess regarding usability and sexual desire?

It should be reusable and should not interfere with libido.

Which three methods are classified as natural/traditional contraception?

Periodic abstinence, withdrawal (coitus interruptus), and lactational amenorrhoea.

What is periodic abstinence and when is the fertile window typically avoided?

Avoiding coitus just before, during, and shortly after ovulation; usually days 10-17 of the menstrual cycle.

Describe the withdrawal method of contraception.

The penis is withdrawn from the vagina before ejaculation to prevent insemination.

How long can lactational amenorrhoea provide contraception after childbirth?

Up to about six months during intense breast-feeding when menstruation has not resumed.

What is the basic purpose of barrier contraceptive methods?

To prevent the physical meeting of sperm and ovum.

Name the male and female versions of condoms.

Male condom (sheath over penis) and female condom (Femishield/Femidom lining the vagina and cervix).

Why are condoms particularly recommended for public health?

They also reduce the spread of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

Which barrier devices block the cervix but do NOT protect against STIs?

Diaphragms, vaults, and cervical caps.

What are spermicides and in which forms are they available?

Chemicals that kill sperm; supplied as creams, jellies, pastes, foams, or tablets.

How are chemical spermicides most effective?

When combined with a barrier method.

What does the abbreviation IUD stand for and who inserts it?

Intra-uterine device; inserted by a doctor or trained nurse.

List the three major categories of IUDs.

Non-medicated (inert), copper-releasing, and hormone-releasing IUDs.

Give two examples of copper-releasing IUDs.

Cu-T 200, Cu-T 380A, Cu-7, Multi-load Cu-375 (any two).

State two mechanisms by which hormone-releasing IUDs prevent pregnancy.

They thicken cervical mucus and render the uterus unsuitable for implantation; they may also suppress ovulation.

How do copper IUDs reduce fertility?

They increase sperm phagocytosis and decrease sperm motility and fertilising capacity within the uterus.

For how many years is Cu-T 380A effective before replacement?

About 7–10 years.

Differentiate steroidal and non-steroidal oral contraceptive pills with one example each.

Steroidal: daily combined pills like Mala-D/Mala-N; Non-steroidal: weekly pill ‘Saheli’ containing centchroman.

What is the usual dosing schedule for combined steroidal oral pills?

One pill daily for 21 consecutive days starting within the first 5 days of the cycle, followed by a 7-day break.

Name two modes of action of combined steroidal oral contraceptives.

They inhibit ovulation and interfere with implantation by altering endometrium and cervical mucus.

What is the active component and dosing frequency of Saheli?

Centchroman (orally active non-steroidal), taken once a week.

How long does a single Depo-Provera injectable provide contraception?

Approximately 3–5 months.

Where are contraceptive implants placed and what do they contain?

Inserted under the skin of the forearm/upper arm; contain only progestogen (e.g., Norplant).

Describe the basic principle of surgical sterilisation in males and females.

Blocking the transport of gametes by cutting and ligating the vas deferens (vasectomy) or fallopian tubes (tubectomy).

Why is surgical sterilisation considered a terminal method?

Its reversibility is very poor; hence it is meant for people who have completed their families.

Which contraceptive method has the lowest average annual failure rate among those listed: natural methods, condoms, IUDs, oral pills, or implants?

Implants (about 7 pregnancies per 1000 women-years).

Define Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP).

Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term.

In which year was MTP legalised in India?

1971.

List three legally accepted reasons for performing an MTP.

Pregnancy due to rape or contraceptive failure, risk to mother’s/foetus’ health, or detection of foetal genetic abnormality.

How many doctors’ approval are required for MTP when pregnancy is over 12 but less than 24 weeks?

Approval from two registered medical practitioners.

Name the two main drugs used in medical abortion.

Mifepristone (RU-486) and misoprostol.

What is the purpose of the Prenatal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation) Act?

To prevent misuse of prenatal diagnostics for sex determination and female foeticide.

Give two alternative terms for sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

Venereal diseases (VD) and reproductive tract infections (RTIs).

Name two bacterial STIs and two viral STIs.

Bacterial: gonorrhoea, syphilis; Viral: genital herpes, AIDS (HIV) or Hepatitis-B.

List four common routes of STI transmission other than sexual intercourse.

Sharing contaminated needles, blood transfusion, use of infected surgical instruments, and transmission from infected mother to foetus/newborn.

State two early and two late complications of untreated STIs.

Early: itching or fluid discharge from genitals; Late: pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or cancers of the reproductive tract.

Give two simple preventive measures against STIs.

Limiting sexual partners/avoiding unknown partners and using condoms consistently.

What organism causes chlamydial infection and which female organ is often affected?

Chlamydia trachomatis; commonly infects the cervix in females.

Name the causative agent of gonorrhoea and state one neonatal complication.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae; may cause blindness in newborns.

Which bacterium causes syphilis and what is its primary stage lesion called?

Treponema pallidum; primary lesion is a painless chancre.

Identify the causative agent of chancroid and describe its ulcer.

Haemophilus ducreyi; produces painful soft ulcers with necrotic base.

Which virus is responsible for genital herpes and what characterises the infection?

Herpes simplex virus type-II (HSV-2); causes recurrent painful blisters on genitalia.

What virus produces genital warts and what is their typical appearance?

Human papilloma virus (HPV); cauliflower-like growths around genital areas.

Expand AIDS and name its causative virus.

Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome; caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Which immune cells are chiefly targeted by HIV?

Helper T-cells (CD4+ lymphocytes).

Why are certain infections called ‘opportunistic’ in AIDS patients?

They exploit the weakened immune system and cause disease only when immunity is compromised.

What protozoan causes trichomoniasis and which membranes does it infect?

Trichomonas vaginalis; infects mucous membranes of urethra in males and vagina/cervix in females.

Define infertility in clinical terms.

Failure to conceive after two years of regular unprotected intercourse.

List four broad categories of factors that may lead to infertility.

Congenital, physical/disease, psychological, and immunological factors.

Differentiate primary and secondary infertility.

Primary: couple has never conceived; Secondary: couple conceived earlier but unable to conceive again.

What does ART stand for and what is its goal?

Assisted Reproductive Technologies; to help infertile couples achieve pregnancy.

Describe in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

Gametes are combined in a laboratory dish; after 3-5 days the embryo is transferred to uterus or fallopian tube.

Explain Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT).

A 2-8 cell test-tube embryo (zygote) is placed directly into the fallopian tube.

What is Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)?

A single sperm is injected directly into an ovum using a microscopic needle before embryo transfer.

Define Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT).

Ova from a donor are placed into the fallopian tube of a woman who cannot produce eggs but can support fertilisation in vivo.

When is Artificial Insemination (AI) recommended and how is it performed?

Used for male infertility (low sperm count/erectile issues); semen from husband or donor is introduced into the woman’s vagina or uterus.

What is surrogacy in the context of ART?

A gestational carrier (another woman) carries the embryo to full term for the intended parents.