3rd year 1st sem Compre

What is the heart rate of the patient? (refer to the figure above) a. 70

b. 80

c. 90

d. 10

b. 80

A nurse is preparing a patient for ECG. She holds on the first ECG lead wire labeled as V1. This lead wire should be placed on:

a. 4th ICS RSB

b. 4th ICS LSB

c. 5th ICS MCL

d. 5th ICS MAL

a. 4th ICS RSB

The nurse now holds the limb leads with a label “N”. This lead wire will be placed on the:

a. Right Wrist

b. Left Wrist

c. Right Foot

d. Left Foot

c. Right Foot

A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. The nurse assesses the cardiac rhythm as:

a. Normal Sinus Rhythm

b. Sinus Bradycardia

c. Sinus Tachycardia

d. None of the above

a. Normal Sinus Rhythm

Diagnostic imaging reveals that the quantity of fluid in a client’s pericardial sac is dangerously increased. The nurse should collaborate with the other members of the care team to prevent the development of what complication?

a. Pulmonary Edema

b. Pericardiocentesis

c. Cardiac Tamponade

d. Pericarditis

c. Cardiac Tamponade

The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a client diagnosed with Heart Failure (HF). The nurse also assesses the patient's sensorium and LOC. Why is the assessment of the patient's sensorium and LOC important in patients with HF?

a. HF ultimately affects oxygen transportation to the brain.

b. Patients with HF are susceptible to overstimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.

c. Patients with HF are susceptible to overstimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.

d. The most significant adverse effect of medications used for Heart Failure treatment is altered Level of Consciousness.

a. HF ultimately affects oxygen transportation to the brain.

An older adult patient with Heart Failure is being discharged home on an ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor and a loop diuretic. The patient’s most recent vital signs prior to discharge include oxygen saturation of 93% on room air, heart rate of 81 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 94/59 mm Hg. When planning this patient’s subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should be identified?

a. Risk for increased tissue perfusion related to dysrhythmia

b. Risk for fluid volume excess related to medication regimen

c. Risk for ineffective breathing pattern related to hypoxia

d. Risk for falls related to hypotension

d. Risk for falls related to hypotension

A patient with Heart Failure met his primary care provider and began treatment with an ACE inhibitor. When the patient begins treatment, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

a. Blood Pressure

b. Level of Consciousness

c. Assessment for Nausea

d. Oxygen Saturation

a. Blood Pressure

Carlo, a 64-year-old retired secretary, is admitted to the medical–surgical area for management of chest pain caused by angina pectoris.

The nurse knows that the basic cause of angina pectoris is believed to be:


 a. dysrhythmias triggered by stress.

b. insufficient coronary blood flow.

c. Minute emboli discharged through the narrowed lumens of the coronary vessels

d. Spasms of vessel walls owing to excessive secretion of epinephrine.

b. insufficient coronary blood flow.

a 64-year-old retired secretary, is admitted to the medical–surgical area for management of chest pain caused by angina pectoris.

The medical record lists a probable diagnosis of chronic stable angina. The nurse knows that Carlo's pain:

a. Has increased progressively in frequency and duration

b. Is incapacitating

c. Is relieved by rest and is predictable

d. Usually occurs at night and may be relieved by sitting upright

c. Is relieved by rest and is predictable

Mika, a 46-year-old farmer, is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with a suspected diagnosis of myocardial infarction. He appears ashen, is diaphoretic and tachycardic, and has severe chest pain. The nursing diagnosis is decreased cardiac output, related to decreased myocardial tissue perfusion.

The nurse knows that the most critical time period for his diagnosis is:

a. the first hour after symptoms begin.

b. within 24 hours after the onset of symptoms.

c. within the first 48 hours after the attack.

d. between the third and fifth day after the attack.

a. the first hour after symptoms begin.

Because the area of infarction develops over minutes to hours, the nurse knows to interpret the following ECG results as indicative of initial myocardial injury:

a. Presence of P waves

b. Enlarged T wave

c. Absent T wave

d. ST segment depression

b. Enlarged T wave

The nurse evaluates a series of laboratory tests within the first few hours. She knows that a positive indicator of cell damage is:

a. Decreased level of troponin

b. Elevated creatinine kinase (CK-MB)

c. Lower level of myoglobin

d. all of the above

b. Elevated creatinine kinase (CK-MB)

For a patient with the clinical finding of leukocytosis, the nurse should:

a. Initiate transmission-based isolation precautions.

b. Inspect for signs of active bleeding.

c. Anticipate a possible physician order for antibiotic coverage.

d. Schedule periods of rest and activity.

c. Anticipate a possible physician order for antibiotic coverage.

To confirm the diagnosis of pernicious anemia, the patient undergoes a Schilling Test. This test involves a:

a. Oral dose of Vitamin B12 followed by collection of a 24-hour urine specimen.

b. Oral dose of multivitamin containing B12, followed by an injection of B12.

c. B12 injection followed by collection of a 24-hour urine specimen.

d. Dose of radioactive Vitamin B12 followed by an injection of B12 and collection of a 24-hour urine specimen

d. Dose of radioactive Vitamin B12 followed by an injection of B12 and collection of a 24-hour urine specimen

The nurse is taking care of an elderly woman with pernicious anemia and demonstrates understanding of the functional implications by:

a. promoting adequate rest

b. actively listening to the patient’s concerns

c. monitoring for bleeding

d. administering antibiotics

a. promoting adequate rest

The first event that occurs in hemostasis is:

a. vascular spasm

b. platelet plug formation

c. coagulation

d. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

a. vascular spasm

A transfusion of PRBCs has been infusing for 5 minutes when the client becomes flushed and tachypneic and says, I am having chills. Please get me a blanket. Which action should you take first?

a. Obtain a warm blanket for the client.

b. Check the client’s oral temperature.

c. Stop the blood transfusion.

d. Administer oxygen.

c. Stop the blood transfusion

 Respiratory and Renal/Fluids and Electrolyte Situation A (for questions 21 to 25): A 19-year-old male client, presents to the emergency clinic with shortness of breathing. He is suspected to have asthma. Question 21. Assessing the client would reveal which possible percussion tone:

a. crackles

b. flat

c. hyper resonance

d. wheezes

c. Hyper resonance

The nurse noticed that the client is severely dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 40 bpm, nasal flaring, use of accessory muscles, a heart rate of 120, and auscultation of the lungs revealed greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take to initiate care?

a. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth.

b. Initiate oxygen therapy per doctor’s order and immediately report findings.

c. Ask the client as to when he last took his bronchodilator from his home medication and administer if appropriate.

d. Draw arterial blood for arterial blood gases analysis and send the client for chest x-ray as per care provider’s order.

c. Ask the client as to when he last took his bronchodilator from his home medication and administer if appropriate.

Which of the following breathing patterns shows that he has improved respiratory status?

a. Slow, deep expiration

b. Slow, shallow inhalation

c. A duration of inhalation twice that of expiration

d. A duration of exhalation twice that of inhalation

d. A duration of exhalation twice that of inhalation

Which finding below would BEST indicate effectiveness of asthma medication?

a. Cyanosis subsided

b. Peak Expiratory Flow Rate at the green zone

c. Patient can breathe on his own without oxygen

d. The ability to participate in active sports for long period of time

b. Peak Expiratory Flow Rate at the green zone

You are evaluating the client’s knowledge on the use of corticosteroid given through turbo haler. The nurse would know that the return demonstration is correct it the client’s initial action is:

a. Twist loading trigger.

b. Exhale and place the lip around the mouthpiece and create a good seal.

c. Inhale deeply as possible. Hold breath after inspiration for 10 seconds.

d. Blow off air after 10 seconds and I will gargle right after my prescribed dose is taken.

a. Twist loading trigger.

 In planning a health teaching for the client with chronic bronchitis about nutrition, the nurse will recommend which diet for lunch:

a. Steamed fish, carrots, and broccoli.

b. Grilled steak with salad and dinner rolls.

c. Fried chicken skin, mashed potato and gravy.

d. Pan fried chicken, red sauce pasta and baguette.

a. Steamed fish, carrots, and broccoli.

To teach a client with COPD about proper breathing exercise, the nurse instructs the client to:

a. Inhale deeply on a tripod position and breathe out through pursed lips.

b. Purse lips while inhaling as deeply as possible and then exhaling through the nose making sure of a longer expiration.

c. Place one hand on the chest and the other on the abdomen while concentrating during inhalation to make the hand on the chest to move up and outward.

d. Place both hands on the abdomen while concentrating on inhaling, breathing against the hands-on abdomen through the nose and out through the mouth.

d. Place both hands on the abdomen while concentrating on inhaling, breathing against the hands-on abdomen through the nose and out through the mouth.

The nurse started a low concentration oxygen therapy at 2 L/min on a client with COPD for the reason that:

a. Higher concentration of oxygen causes oxygen toxicity.

b. The client may become dependent on supplemental oxygen.

c. Higher concentration of oxygen may eliminate the hypoxic stimulus for respiration.

d. Higher concentrations of oxygen may dry the oro-nasal mucosa, providing entry for organisms.

c. Higher concentration of oxygen may eliminate the hypoxic stimulus for respiration.

A client with chronic bronchitis had his blood taken for ABG analysis, which of the following BEST illustrates the possible result:

a. pH: 7.52, PaCO2: 18mmHg, HCO3: 22mEq/L

b. pH: 7.50, PaCO2: 38mmHg, HCO3: 38mEq/L

c. pH: 7.30, PaCO2: 52mmHg, HCO3: 30mEq/L

d. pH: 7.30, PaCO2: 40mmHg, HCO3: 18mEq/L

c. pH: 7.30, PaCO2: 52mmHg, HCO3: 30mEq/L

Which of the following symptoms present in a client with chronic bronchitis is MOST indicative of the disease?

a. Cyanosis

b. Dyspnea

c. Weight gain

d. Productive cough for 3 months in 2 years

d. Productive cough for 3 months in 2 years

The client from a vehicular crash suspected of acquiring pulmonary contusion with pleural effusion is for thoracentesis. What position should you assist the client during the procedure:

a. Leaning forward with arms on a secured table.

b. On prone with the head of the bed lowered 15-30 degrees.

c. On lateral position leaning on the affected side with the bed elevated 30-40 degrees.

d. Lying supine with bed raised to 45 degrees and her arms supported on a padded overbed table.

a. Leaning forward with arms on a secured table.

. A client with chronic sinusitis underwent Caldwell-Luc Surgery. Which post-operative health teaching should you include?

a. To perform safe oral hygiene

b. To avoid loud talking within two weeks after surgery

c. To resume wearing dentures to protect the incision site during mastication.

d. To masticate on affected site to increase blood circulation and hasten healing

a. To perform safe oral hygiene

A nurse is assigned to a post tonsillectomy client. Her postoperative considerations include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Provide bland soft foods

b. Avoid cool, citrus- or milk-based beverages

c. Client maybe placed on semi-Fowler’s once fully awake

d. Initially to promote comfort, place patient on flat supine position

d. Initially to promote comfort, place patient on flat supine position

Among the assigned clients is an 18-year-old male suspected to have epiglottitis. Which of the following reasons makes the case a serious emergency situation?

a. The disease process can lead to poor perfusion of the lungs leading to ARDS

b. The immune process may flood the upper airway of secretions leading to aspiration

c. The infection process may cause cavitation of the apex of the lungs and lead to respiratory failure

d. The inflammatory response may cause obstruction of the lower airway from organ enlargement

d. The inflammatory response may cause obstruction of the lower airway from organ enlargement

A nurse is about to discharge a post total laryngectomy client. The following health teachings should be included in discharge instruction, EXCEPT:

a. Establish a follow up care

b. Avoid swimming and tub bath

c. Avoid use of powder, spray or aerosol

d. You may cover the tracheostomy with non-porous material

d. You may cover the tracheostomy with non-porous material

A nurse is about to carry out a care provider’s order to initiate chest physiotherapy to a client with Cystic Fibrosis. The nurse recalls considering the following nursing considerations, SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: a. Change position gradually to prevent postural hypotension.

b. Consider positioning through initial auscultation.

c. Do CPT of upper lobes before the lower lobes.

d. Provide oral hygiene.

a. Change position gradually to prevent postural hypotension.

b. Consider positioning through initial auscultation.

c. Do CPT of upper lobes before the lower lobes.

d. Provide oral hygiene.

The doctor prescribed Isoniazid as one of the medications for the client’s chemotherapy for Pulmonary Tuberculosis. The nurse would anticipate that the care provider will also order which of the following to prevent its side-effect:

a. Thiamine

b. Pyridoxine

c. Ipratropium bromide

d. Cyanocobalamin

b. Pyridoxine

The nurse is assuring patency of a client’s chest thoracostomy tube drain. Upon assessment she would expect fluctuation of water at which part of the system? Refer to Exhibit 1

a. Bottle 1

b. Bottle 2

c. Bottle 3

d. Air vent

b. Bottle 2

To carry out bronchial hygiene, chest physiotherapy should be followed with either coughing exercise or suctioning. The proper sequence of suctioning is:

1. Initial auscultation of the chest

2. Insert suction tip with gloved hand following aseptic technique

3. Apply intermittent suctioning during withdrawal while rotating the catheter

4. Administer supplemental oxygen

5. Re-evaluate the client and reapply oxygen supply

a. 1, 3, 2, 4, and 5

b. 2, 1, 4, 3, and 5

c. 1, 4, 2, 3 and 5

d. 4, 2, 3, 1 and 5

c. 1, 4, 2, 3 and 5

The client did a proper peak flow meter demonstration if he would follow which sequence?

1. Wash and dry hands

2. Take a deep breath

3. Set the pointer to zero

4. Place their lips and teeth around the mouthpiece, ensuring a good seal

5. Obtain a comfortable position

6. Breathe out hard and fast 8

7. Assemble equipment

a. 1, 7, 3, 5, 2, 4, and 6

Situation C: A nurse in the Kidney Center encountered the following clients. Question 41. A nurse recalls that the fatty mass which holds the kidney in place and acts as a cushion against trauma is:

a. Renal cortex

b. Outer renal fascia

c. Inner renal capsule

d. Middle adipose capsule

d. Middle adipose capsule

A routine urinalysis is ordered for a client’s physical examination. If a delay for the specimen to be tested would occur, which action should the nurse take?

a. Take no special action

b. Refrigerate the specimen

c. Store on “dirty” side of utility room

d. Discard and collect a new specimen later

b. Refrigerate the specimen

A client’s urinalysis revealed a pH of 6.0, clear, light yellow, aromatic with 2 per hpf WBC. The nurse knows that this mean a/an:

a. normal result

b. artifact result

c. abnormal result

d. unremarkable result

a. normal result.

A client had her follow up checkup and complained of a radiating pain on her abdomen that is colicky in nature. The nurse explains to her that most likely she has a problem in her:

a. Bladder

b. Kidneys

c. Ureter

d. Urethra

c. Ureter

A nurse is interviewing a client who is diagnosed with Urinary Tract Infection (UTI). She expects to see which signs and symptoms in his history of present illness.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a. Pyuria

b. Dysuria

c. Fever, chills

d. Loss of appetite

e. Pain: Flank, one or both sides

a. Pyuria

b. Dysuria

c. Fever, chills

d. Loss of appetite

e. Pain: Flank, one or both sides

The client with UTI is given the prescription to take phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium). The nurse recalls that this is indicated for which symptom?

a. Pyuria

b. Oliguria

c. Hyperthermia

d. Discomforts on costovertebral angle

d. Discomforts on costovertebral angle

The CT scan and MRI results of a client diagnosed with renal carcinoma revealed a tumor that extends beyond renal capsule, involvement of perinephric fats but no metastasis. You know that this is stage:

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

b. ll

A day post radical nephrectomy, a client had episodes of urination amounting only to 22-27 ml/hour. The nurse best response to this is to:

a. Continue monitoring

b. Increased IV fluids flow rate

c. Report immediately to the physician

d. Review medications and monitor effects

c. Report immediately to the physician

What information in a client’s history would support her diagnosis of acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN)?

e. High sodium diet

a. History of pharyngitis

b. History of dehydration from severe diarrhea

c. Uncle from mother side with cystic kidney disease

a. History of pharyngitis

A client diagnosed with Nephrotic Syndrome, was assigned to a nurse. Before doing her rounds, she reviewed that the most common manifestation of this disorder are;

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a. Massive edema

b. Hyperlipidemia

c. Massive Proteinuria

d. Severe Hypertension

a. Massive edema

b. Hyperlipidemia

c. Massive Proteinuria

A nurse is assigned to a client with generalized edema. The nurse includes the following in her care; EXCEPT:

a. Turn frequently

b. No IM injection

c. Do not use adhesives

d. Use egg crate mattress

e. Apply supportive elastic bandage

e. Apply supportive elastic bandage

In the Emergency Department, the nurse received a client from a vehicular accident. The nurse noticed that he has a massive hematoma on the right flank and is showing signs of shock which are:

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a. Hypotension

b. Tachycardia

c. Tachypnea

d. Decreased level of consciousness

e. Cool pale skin

a. Hypotension

b. Tachycardia

c. Tachypnea

d. Decreased level of consciousness

e. Cool pale skin

A client diagnosed with Chronic Renal Failure (CRF) manifested anemia, edema, pulmonary congestion and GFR of 15-20%. You know that this means he is in which stage of CRF:

a. Stage I

b. Stage II

c. Stage III

d. Stage IV

c. Stage III

The client’s serum potassium is elevated, and the nurse administers sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). This drug acts to:

a. Release hydrogen ions for sodium ions.

b. Increase calcium absorption in the colon.

c. Exchange sodium for potassium in the colon.

d. Increase potassium excretion from the colon through binding.

d. Increase potassium excretion from the colon through binding.

If the client’s serum potassium continues to rise, a nurse should anticipate preparing for which of the following emergency situations?

a. Hemorrhage

b. Cardiac arrest

c. Pulmonary edema

d. Circulatory collapse

b. Cardiac arrest

A client was given the order to have hemodialysis through a peripheral access on the right arm. A nurse considers the following care prior to his hemodialysis;

EXCEPT:

a. Have client to void

b. Auscultate for bruit

c. Comparing BP of both arms

d. Assess vital signs before and every 30 minutes during procedure

c. Comparing BP of both arms

Which of the following abnormal blood values will NOT be improved by dialysis treatment?

a. Hyperkalemia

b. Hypernatremia

c. Decreased hemoglobin

d. Elevated serum creatinine

c. Decreased hemoglobin

The nurse started Newt’s first hemodialysis treatment. Newt develops headache, confusion and nausea. These findings indicate which of the following potential complications? a. Peritonitis

b. Air embolism

c. Hyperkalemia

d. Disequilibrium syndrome

d. Disequilibrium syndrom

Newt was eventually placed on renal replacement therapy. He was to have a living related donor. The nurse recalls that the requirement for living donors are the following, EXCEPT:

a. Emotional well-being is determined

b. Should have been cleared from communicable diseases

c. Must have excellent health with a functioning kidney

d. Should have been screened for ABO, tissue specific antigen, histocompatibility

c. Must have excellent health with a functioning kidney

To ensure adequate nutritional intake, the most appropriate diet plan for Newt is:

a. Low protein, low potassium

b. High carbohydrate, high protein

c. Low protein, low potassium, low sodium

d. High calcium, high potassium, high protein

c. Low protein, low potassium, low sodium

Which statement is CORRECT regarding Bruton’s syndrome? a. Causes disease in females only.

b. Infections they obtain often produce abscess or pus.

c. Clients with Bruton’s have adequate number antibodies.

d. They shouldn’t be administered with immunoglobulins

b. Infections they obtain often produce abscess or pus.

The client is brought to the emergency room and is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction from eating shellfish. The nurse implements which immediate independent nursing action?

a. Administering epinephrine

b. Administering a corticosteroid

c. Maintaining a patent airway

d. Instructing the client on the importance of obtaining a Medic alert bracelet

c. Maintaining a patent airway

A patient undergoing blood transfusion suddenly complained of difficulty of breathing, chest tightness and pruritus. The nurse immediately stops the transfusion and open the normal saline IV fluid because she’s aware that the patient is having a/an:

a. Anaphylactic hypersensitivity

b. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

c. Immune complex hypersensitivity

d. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

b. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A student nurse who changed cosmetic make-up 3 days ago developed rashes on her face this morning. She recalls from her immunity lecture that she is having a/an:

a. Anaphylactic hypersensitivity

b. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

c. Immune complex hypersensitivity

d. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

d. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

A nurse caring for a client having an anaphylactic type of hypersensitivity would attribute the signs and symptoms from:

a. Decrease number of circulating antibodies

b. Release of chemical mediators of mast cells

c. Release of toxins by invading microorganisms

d. Destruction of normal cells by the immune system

b. Release of chemical mediators of mast cells

A nurse caring for a client having an anaphylactic type of hypersensitivity would EXPECT an elevation of the client’s:

a. Eosinophils

b. Immunoglobulin E

c. Neutrophils

d. A & B only

e. All of the above

d. A & B only

A client is suspected of having Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following is a characteristic sign of this disease?

a. Fatigue

b. Fever

c. Elevated RBC

d. Rash on the face across the bridge of the nose and on the cheeks

d. Rash on the face across the bridge of the nose and on the cheeks

A diagnosis of SLE can be made if at any time during the course of the disease a client will manifest how many signs and symptoms from the list of criteria?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

b. 4

The nurse is assigned to care for a client admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of SLE. The nurse reviews the physician’s orders, expecting to note which of the following medications is prescribed.

a. antibiotic

b. narcotic analgesic

c. antidiarrheal

d. anti-malarial

d. anti-malarial

The nurse is providing health teaching to a client regarding a rash that appears with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. In the evaluation of the client’s knowledge, the nurse would know that there is a need to reinforce teaching when the client would state:

a. “I can use prescribed topical glucocorticoids.”

b. “I should keep away from direct sunlight, especially at 8 am beyond.”

c. “Loose, light, long and bright clothing mainly white may reduce flare ups.”

d. “Application of sunscreen with SPF 15 or higher and tanning lotions are effective too.”

d. “Application of sunscreen with SPF 15 or higher and tanning lotions are effective too.”

What connects the innate and adaptive immunity?

a. Antigen presentation

b. Antigen formation

c. Antibody formation

d. Antibody presentation

a. Antigen presentation

As microorganism leaves its source, it requires a means of transmission to reach another person through a receptive portal of entry. Identify an example of indirect transmission.

a. Having sexual intercourse with an infected person.

b. Sharing of eating and cooking utensils.

c. Sneezing during a conversation.

d. Touching another person.

b. Sharing of eating and cooking utensils

Which of the following situations is an example of microorganism transmission via droplet nuclei?

a. A virus is transmitted through sexual intercourse

b. Rode an airconditioned bus with a covid-19 positive person.

c. A contaminated stethoscope touches the skin of a client

d. Talking to a person who suddenly coughs.

d. Talking to a person who suddenly coughs.

A papule is described as:

a. a flat spot on the skin whose color may be lighter or darker than the surrounding skin.

b. a small, elevated skin lesion filled with white blood cells.

c. a small bump or pimple that rises above the surface of the skin

d. a small blister-like elevation on the skin containing serous fluid

c. a small bump or pimple that rises above the surface of the skin

A nurse is preparing a poster for a community health education and is listing the risk factors of having an infectious disease. SELECT ALL risk factors that the nurse would place on the list.

a. A person with a successful organ transplant.

b. A neonate.

c. An adult with chronic illness.

d. A woman with cancer.

e. An elderly with dementia.

a. A person with a successful organ transplant.

b. A neonate.

c. An adult with chronic illness.

d. A woman with cancer.

Which among the following patient isolation precautions must be employed to a client with food-waterborne diseases?

a. reverse isolation

b. droplet precaution

c. quarantine isolation

d. contact precaution

d. contact precaution

Which of the following laboratory findings suggest that the disease progressed from HIV to AIDS?

a. 10% body weight loss

b. CD4 count of <200 mg/dl

c. Presence of oral candidiasis

d. WBC count of 20,000 mg/dl

b. CD4 count of <200 mg/dl

Which of the following actions would be the least effective STD risk reduction strategy?

a. Abstinence

b. Using a male condom after vasectomy

c. Lifelong monogamy of both partners

d. Taking oral contraceptives for family planning

d. Taking oral contraceptives for family planning

During the excitement stage of rabies, the nurse must do the following EXCEPT:

a. Provide a quiet environment, free from stimuli

b. Provide a room away from the utility room

c. Offer fluid to relieve laryngospasm

d. Place in a quiet isolation room

c. Offer fluid to relieve laryngospasm

The following are warning signs of DHF, EXCEPT;

a. Anorexia

b. Abdominal pain

c. Hepatomegaly

d. Increase in Hematocrit

a. Anorexia

Which of the following is the highest cause of cancer death in the US in both male and female population?

a. Colorectal

b. Lung

c. Breast

d. Pancreatic

b. Lung

What is the single most lethal chemical carcinogen that accounts to 30% of all cancer deaths?

a. Tobacco Smoke

b. Radon

c. Alcohol

d. Asbestos

a. Tobacco Smoke

Which of the following substances is found lesser in amount on cellular membranes of malignant cells making them less cohesive to adjacent cells?

a. Elastin

b. Fibronectin

c. Collagen

d. Fibroblast

b. Fibronectin

An endoscopic procedure can be used to remove an entire piece of suspicious tissue growth. The diagnostic biopsy method used for this procedure is known as:

a. Excisional biopsy.

b. Incisional biopsy.

c. Needle biopsy.

d. Staging.

a. Excisional biopsy.

Starting at what age colonoscopy is recommended with a 10- year interval in between examination as a secondary prevention from colon cancer?

a. 30 years old

b. 40 years old

c. 50 years old

d. 60 years old

c. 50 years old

If the tumor of your client is graded by the physician as grade 1, what does it tell you about the tumor?

a. Cells of the tumor closely resembles that of the normal tissues

b. The tumor cells are undifferentiated

c. Aggressive tumor with poor prognosis

d. Tumor cells are less differentiated and forms glands

a. Cells of the tumor closely resembles that of the normal tissues

The following are side effects of radiation therapy on the skin EXCEPT:

a. Erythema

b. Desquamation

c. Alopecia

d. Hirsutism

d. Hirsutism

Which of the following is the most common side effects of antineoplastic drug therapy?

a. Anorexia

b. Nausea and vomiting

c. Alopecia

d. Thrombocytopenia

b. Nausea and vomiting

Which type of tumors are more sensitive to radiation therapy?

a. Poorly oxygenated tumor

b. Big tumors sizes

c. Slow proliferation rate

d. Poorly differentiated

d. Poorly differentiated

The following are safety precautions that a nurse should practice when taking care of patients receiving brachytherapy EXCEPT:

a. Assigning only one nurse to take care of the patient per shift

b. Nurses who enter the room of the patient should wear a dosimeter badge

c. Limit time in giving direct patient care for 30 minutes in a day per nurse

d. Posting appropriate notices about radiation safety precautions

a. Assigning only one nurse to take care of the patient per shift

The following are the correct management of extravasation, EXCEPT:

a. Stop the anti-neoplastic infusion

b. Aspirate infiltrated medication from the tissue

c. Inject antidote of the infiltrated drug

d. Fast drip the main line to flush residual drug in the tubing

d. Fast drip the main line to flush residual drug in the tubing

One of the side effects of antineoplastic therapy is tumor lysis syndrome leading to hyperuricemia, which of the following medications you would expect to be given to the client?

a. Allopurinol

b. Kayexalate

c. Furosemide

d. Aluminum hydroxide

a. Allopurinol

Which of the following laboratory results on platelet count indicates the patient is at moderate risk for bleeding?

a. 150,000-100,000/mm3

b. 50, 0000- 100,000/mm3

c. 20,000-50,000/mm3

d. Less than 20,000/mm3

b. 50, 0000- 100,000/mm3

Tumor lysis syndrome may result in hyperkalemia due to the release of intracellular contents into the bloodstream. Which of the following medications would you expect to be given to manage lifethreatening hyperkalemia?

a. Allopurinol

b. Kayexalate

c. Aluminum hydroxide

d. Furosemide

b. Kayexalate

Which medication specifically targets cancer cells sparing normal cells from damages?

a. Imatinib

b. Vincristine

c. Doxorubicin

d. Cisplatin

b. Vincristine

Nurse Kyla is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is experiencing complications related to the surgery?

a. Pain at the incisional site

b. Arm edema on the operative site

c. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain

d. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site.

d. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site.

Nurse Shine is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:

a. Breast self-examination

b. Mammography

c. Fine needle aspiration

d. Chest X-ray

c. Fine needle aspiration

The nurse is preparing Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Safe handling of drugs should be implemented to protect the nurse from injury. Which of the following actions by the nurse should be corrected?

a. The nurse should only wear mask and gloves

b. Air bubbles should be expelled on wet cotton

c. Label the hanging IV bottle with “ANTINEOPLASTIC CHEMOTHERAPY” sign.

d. Vent vials after mixing to relieve pressure in the vial.

a. The nurse should only wear mask and gloves

The following are ways to assist a cancer patient in coping with hair loss EXCEPT:

a. Begin to wear a wig when the majority of the hair has fallen off.

b. Wear hat, scarf, or turban

c. Contact the American Cancer Society for donated wig

d. Explain that hair growth usually begins again once therapy is completed

a. Begin to wear a wig when the majority of the hair has fallen off.

Why do we need to encourage patient participation when changes of pain management arise?

a. To increase the client self-esteem

b. To encourage social engagement

c. To increase anxiety of the client

d. To decrease sense of powerlessness

d. To decrease sense of powerlessness