DH206 Final exam study cards (all past quizzes, no duplicates)

The FDA introduced Good Manufacturing Practice standards to ensure that dietary supplements are free of adulterants, contaminants, and impurities and that the labels accurately depict the contents of the package. This testing in mandatory and is enforced by the FDA.

a.Both statements are true.

b.Both statements are false.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

d.The first statement is false, the second is true.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

Each of the following is true of the FDA Food Safety and Modernization Act of 2010 EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a.It provides the FDA with mandatory recall authority for all foods.

b.It requires the FDA to issue New Dietary Ingredients guidance.

c.It expands the facility registration obligations.

d.It requires the manufacturer to prove that an herbal product is safe and effective.

d.It requires the manufacturer to prove that an herbal product is safe and effective.

Herbal products in the United States are regulated by which governmental agency?

a.Federal Trade Commission

b.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c.Environmental Protection Agency

d.Dietary Supplement and Education Act (DSHEA)

e.US Pharmacopeia

d.Dietary Supplement and Education Act (DSHEA)

Oil of cloves has been used in dentistry for many years as a topical analgesic for dental pain. Extensive clinical trials have confirmed its efficacy.

a.Both statements are true.

b.Both statements are false.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

d.The first statement is false, the second is true.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

The Adverse Events Reporting law requires reporting of "serious" adverse events for

a.both over-the-counter drugs and dietary supplements.

b.over-the-counter drugs but not dietary supplements.

c.dietary supplements but not over-the-counter drugs.

d.neither over-the-counter drugs nor dietary supplements.

a.both over-the-counter drugs and dietary supplements.

Which herbal supplement products have been proven effective in protecting against plaque and gingivitis?

a.Acemannan hydrogel (extract of aloe vera)

b.Essential oil mouth rinse

c.Oil of cloves (eugenol)

d.Triclosan

e.Xylitol

f.B and D only

f.B and D only

Which is true of eugenol?

a.Used in mouth rinses containing thymol, eucalyptol, and menthol.

b.Extract of aloe vera plant leaf used to treat aphthous ulcers.

c.Historically used in dentistry as a topical analgesic for dental pain.

d.Herbal-based product that significantly reduces plaque and gingivitis.

e.Naturally occurring sweetener with an anticariogenic effect.

c.Historically used in dentistry as a topical analgesic for dental pain.

Antibiotics should be considered for the treatment of ANUG

a.for all patients.

b.for all adult patients but not for children.

c.only if the patient is running a fever.

d.only if the patient is immunocompromised or if evidence of systemic involvement exists.

d.only if the patient is immunocompromised or if evidence of systemic involvement exists.

Pilocarpine is a(n) _____ agent that produces an increase in saliva.

a.adrenergic

b.antiadrenergic

c.cholinergic

d.anticholinergic

c.cholinergic

The following agents are useful in the treatment of oral herpes lesions except one. Which one is the exception?

a.Diphenhydramine liquid

b.Acyclovir

c.Corticosteroids

d.Viscous lidocaine

e.Sodium carboxymethylcellulose

c.Corticosteroids

Which antiviral agent is available without a prescription?

a.Acyclovir

b.Valacyclovir

c.Penciclovir

d.Docosanol

e.Famciclovir

d.Docosanol

Candida albicans is a part of the normal oral flora. A decrease in occlusal vertical dimension (OVD) will often lead to angular cheilitis.

a.Both statements are true.

b.Both statements are false.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

d.The first statement is false, the second is true.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

T/F: The majority of cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ) are associated with patients taking corticosteroids.

False

Cheilosis can result from deficiencies of vitamins

a.B1 and B2.

b.B2 and B6.

c.B6 and B12.

d.B9 and B12.

b.B2 and B6.

Which of the following conditions involves a focal immune dysfunction in which a decreased ratio of T-helper to T-suppressor/cytotoxic cells can be seen?

a.Alveolar osteitis

b.Angular cheilitis

c.Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)

d.Recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS)

e.Geographic tongue

d.Recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS)

According to the Centers for Disease Control, a patient with active herpetic lesions should receive which type of dental care?

a.Any dental restorative work or periodontal care is fine.

b.Periodontal care but not restorative work.

c.Direct restorative work (amalgam, composite) and routine prophylaxis.

d.Routine prophylaxis only.

e.Emergency dental care or treatment for the lesions only.

e.Emergency dental care or treatment for the lesions only.

T/F: Proteins in dairy products raise pH levels and can inhibit bacterial growth.

True

Which of the following statements is true of NaF varnish as a professionally applied topical agent?

a.The varnish requires prior oral prophylaxis.

b.The varnish stays on the enamel longer than topical fluoride.

c.The varnish can be applied if saliva is present.

d.Both A and B are true.

e.Both B and C are true.

e.Both B and C are true.

Patients should rinse with chlorhexidine for 30 seconds with 15 ml of chlorhexidine _____ a day.

a.once

b.twice

c.three times

d.four times

b.twice

The majority of desensitizing toothpastes contain

a.NaF.

b.oxalates.

c.adhesives and resins.

d.5% potassium nitrate.

d.5% potassium nitrate.

Which of the following liquids may be used during management of acute fluoride toxicity?

a.Apple juice

b.Lemonade

c.Milk

d.Coffee

c.Milk

The FDA has stated that triclosan is effective against

a.occlusal caries.

b.proximal caries.

c.gingivitis.

d.periodontitis.

c.gingivitis.

Professionally applied fluoride topical agents last for approximately

a.5 to 8 weeks.

b.12 weeks or 3 months.

c.26 weeks or 6 months.

d.52 weeks or 1 year.

a.5 to 8 weeks.

The dental hygienist should teach the patient that the best way to ensure healthy teeth and gingival tissues is to remove plaque mechanically by brushing at least twice daily and by _____ at least once a day.

a.rinsing with mouthwash

b.flossing

c.massaging the tissue

d.using a toothpick

b.flossing

Food _____ are less cariogenic.

a.with lower water content

b.that stimulates saliva flow

c.high in protein

d.Both A and B are correct.

e.Both B and C are correct.

e.Both B and C are correct.

Which is the mechanism of action of xylitol for its antibacterial and cariostatic effects?

a.Direct bactericidal effect on Streptococcus mutans

b.Inhibition of the ability of S. mutans to adhere and multiply in plaque

c.Inability to be metabolized by S. mutans as a nutrient source

d.B and C only

e.All of the above

d.B and C only

The FDA has performed much of the research and advanced the knowledge about herbal products and supplements. The German Federal Health Agency established the German Commission E to review and analyze world literature on plant-based products.

a.Both statements are true.

b.Both statements are false.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

d.The first statement is false, the second is true.

d.The first statement is false, the second is true.

Many consumers consider herbal products to be nontoxic or side effect free because they are often called "natural" remedies. Most herbal products cause no adverse effects and drug interactions.

a.Both statements are true.

b.Both statements are false.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

d.The first statement is false, the second is true.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

Actinic lip changes, if keratotic, are best treated with

a.sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 15 or greater.

b.acyclovir.

c.5-fluorouracil (5-FU).

d.topical steroids.

e.diphenhydramine.

c.5-fluorouracil (5-FU).

Most cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ) are associated with

a.infection.

b.cancer therapy.

c.bisphosphonate therapy.

d.use of steroids.

c.bisphosphonate therapy.

A patient presents with an oral ulcer that begins at an interdental papillae. The condition most likely is

a.herpetic gingivostomatitis.

b.acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).

c.aphthous stomatitis.

d.pericoronitis.

b.acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG).

Alveolar osteitis, or "dry socket," occurs in 2% to 3% of all tooth extractions, most commonly in the _____ region.

a.mandibular incisor

b.mandibular molar

c.maxillary incisor

d.maxillary molar

b.mandibular molar

The etiology of aphthous stomatitis involves an immunologic component in which a significant role is played by

a.B lymphocytes.

b.T lymphocytes.

c.plasma cells.

d.monocytes.

b.T lymphocytes.

T/F: Acyclovir should not be used prophylactically to prevent minor outbreaks of herpes because excessive use may lead to resistant strains of herpes.

True

Which of the following statements is true concerning fluoride toxicity?

a.Both acute and chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.

b.Acute but not chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.

c.Chronic but not acute toxicity can occur with fluoride use.

d.Neither acute nor chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.

a.Both acute and chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.

Which of the following choices is the most common cause of intrinsic acid production?

a.Medication

b.Gastric reflux

c.Wine

d.Ciders

b.Gastric reflux

Which of the following treatments is the most effective in reducing gingivitis?

a.Sodium 2% fluoride

b.APF 1.23%

c.0.4% SnF and 1.1% NaF in APF

d.0.3% triclosan

d.0.3% triclosan

T/F:Dental disorders result in 7 million days of lost work each year.

True

Which of the following statements is true of Xylitol?

a.Xylitol has been found to reduce the levels of Streptococcus mutans in saliva but not plaque.

b.Xylitol has been found to inhibit the attachment of biofilm to teeth.

c.Xylitol can prevent the transmission of oral bacteria from mother to child.

d.Both A and B are true.

e.Both B and C are true.

e.Both B and C are true.

Which of the following statements is true of the use of chlorhexidine rinse for the treatment of gingivitis?

a.Chlorhexidine is active against gram-positive but not gram-negative bacteria.

b.Chlorhexidine is subject to bacterial resistance.

c.Chlorhexidine binds to the bacterial cell membrane and increases its permeability.

d.Chlorhexidine is used prophylactically.

c.Chlorhexidine binds to the bacterial cell membrane and increases its permeability.

Which of the following professionally applied preparations for in-office application has the highest fluoride concentration (ppm)?

a.Sodium 2%

b.Sodium varnish 5%

c.APF 1.23%

d.0.4% SnF and 1.1% NaF in APF

b.Sodium varnish 5%

An automated external defibrillator (AED), if administered within the first 5 minutes of cardiac arrest, can save up to _____% of persons experiencing cardiac arrest.

a.10

b.30

c.50

d.70

e.90

c.50

Which of the following symptoms is associated with diabetic coma?

a.Decreased pulse

b.Increased appetite

c.Acetone breath

d.Cool, moist skin

c.Acetone breath

The drug of choice for opioid overdose is

a.intravenous diphenhydramine.

b.prochlorperazine.

c.naloxone.

d.flumazenil.

c.naloxone.

Which of the following statements is true concerning treatment for a patient who is hyperventilating?

a.Opioid analgesics or diazepam will resolve the situation.

b.The treatment is calm reassurance.

c.Steroids and aminophylline may be administered.

d.Parenteral epinephrine is the drug of choice.

b.The treatment is calm reassurance.

Which of the following is considered to be a Level 1: Critical Drug rather than a Level 2: Secondary Drug?

a.Atropine

b.Glucagon

c.Epinephrine

d.Diazepam

c.Epinephrine

T/F: The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is sublingual or intramuscular injection of epinephrine.

True

Which of the following signs is the most common emergency in the dental office?

a.Acute airway obstruction

b.Syncope

c.Hypoglycemia

d.Diabetic coma

b.Syncope

The most important component in the treatment of syncope is

a.placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position.

b.exhibiting confidence in action and voice.

c.administering spirits of ammonia by inhalation.

d.placing the patient's head between his or her legs.

b.exhibiting confidence in action and voice.

Which of the following emergency drugs is used to manage hypoglycemia in a patient with diabetes?

a.Diphenhydramine

b.Nitroglycerin

c.Albuterol

d.Glucose

d.Glucose

Which of the following is a potential consequence of administering a drug to a pregnant woman?

a.Teratogenicity to the fetus

b.Spontaneous abortion

c.Delayed and long-term physiologic and psychologic consequences

d.Adverse reactions in the near-term fetus

e.All of the above

e.All of the above

Each of the following agents has been demonstrated to produce skeletal abnormalities in the fetus EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a.Doxycycline

b.Erythromycin other than the estolate form

c.Warfarin

d.Aspirin

b.Erythromycin other than the estolate form

Use of which of the following agents during pregnancy is associated with "floppy infant syndrome"?

a.Naproxen

b.Diazepam

c.Nystatin

d.Warfarin

b.Diazepam

Which is the best choice of analgesic for a pregnant patient?

a.Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin, ASA)

b.Ibuprofen (Motrin)

c.Naproxen (Naprosyn)

d.Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

d.Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Which dental anesthetic is contra-indicated for a pregnant woman?

a.Lidocaine

b.Mepivacaine

c.Bupivacaine

d.Epinephrine

c.Bupivacaine

Which of the following statements is true of the use of nystatin in either a pregnant woman or a nursing infant?

a.Nystatin may be used by either a pregnant woman or a nursing infant.

b.Nystatin may be used by a pregnant woman, but not by a nursing infant.

c.Nystatin may be used by a nursing infant, but not by a pregnant woman.

d.Nystatin is not to be used by either a pregnant woman or a nursing infant.

a.Nystatin may be used by either a pregnant woman or a nursing infant.

Erythromycin is concentrated in breast milk. A nursing mother should be given erythromycin only if the breast milk is expressed and discarded during treatment and 48 hours after the last dose.

a.Both statements are true.

b.Both statements are false.

c.The first statement is true; the second is false.

d.The first statement is false; the second is true.

c.The first statement is true; the second is false.

Each of the following is a subsection of the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) pregnancy categories EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a.Pregnancy

b.Lactation

c.Females and Males of Reproductive Potential

d.Pregnancy categories A, B, C, D and X

d.Pregnancy categories A, B, C, D and X

Which age group has the highest rate of current use of tobacco products in America?

a.Children under 12 years of age

b.Youths aged 12 to 17

c.Young adults aged 18 to 25

d.Adults aged 26 or older

c.Young adults aged 18 to 25

Disulfiram is an agent used in the treatment of

a.ethyl alcohol withdrawal.

b.opioid withdrawal.

c.barbiturate overdose.

d.alcohol use disorder.

d.alcohol use disorder.

At which stage of ethyl alcohol withdrawal are hallucinations most prevalent?

a.Stage 1

b.Stage 2

c.Stage 3

d.Ethyl alcohol withdrawal is not associated with hallucinations

b.Stage 2

T/F: Drug withdrawal from sedative-hypnotic agents can be more life threatening than withdrawal from opioids.

True

Which agent produces a state described as a complete satiation of all drives?

a.Ethyl alcohol

b.Cocaine

c.Nitrous oxide

d.Morphine

e.Methaqualone

d.Morphine

Prescribing _____ for analgesia is best when treating a dental patient who abuses opioids.

a.Tylenol #3 with codeine

b.Vicodin

c.Percocet

d.nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

d.nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

What is "spice" or "K-2"?

a.A designer drug created by spraying natural herbs with synthetic chemicals that produce psychoactive effects similar to cannabis

b.A method of smoking oregano to get a hallucinogenic effect

c.The stems of the hemp plant rather than the leaves

d.A version of phencyclidine (PCP)

e.A British female pop group or a brand of snow skis

a.A designer drug created by spraying natural herbs with synthetic chemicals that produce psychoactive effects similar to cannabis

What is the primary reason why treatment can be dangerous with an active methamphetamine user?

a.The person may be psychotic.

b.The person may become paranoid and bite the operator.

c.The use of local anesthetic can intensify the cardiac effects of meth.

d.The sound of the dental drill can cause the patient to become agitated.

c.The use of local anesthetic can intensify the cardiac effects of meth.

Symptoms that differentiate myocardial infarction from angina pectoris include

a.heaviness in the chest.

b.pain that radiates across the chest to other parts of the body.

c.pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin.

d.rapid pulse.

c.pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin.

Which of the following is a method of preventing an emergency in the dental office?

a.Taking a complete patient history

b.Training of personnel

c.Posting the telephone numbers for the closest physician, emergency room, and ambulance service

d.Having a well-stocked and up-to-date emergency kit

a.Taking a complete patient history

Toxic reactions to epinephrine occur most often after the placement of a gingival retraction cord. The treatment of choice is to administer an adrenergic-receptor antagonist.

a.Both statements are true.

b.Both statements are false.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

d.The first statement is false, the second is true.

c.The first statement is true, the second is false.

Which of the following drugs is the agent of choice for treating a drug-induced laryngospasm?

a.Aminophylline

b.Succinylcholine

c.Parenteral epinephrine

d.Diazepam

b.Succinylcholine

The most common cause of hypoglycemia is

a.stress or anxiety.

b.insufficient hydration with water.

c.an excessive dose of insulin in a patient with diabetes.

d.cardiac medication.

c.an excessive dose of insulin in a patient with diabetes.

Which of the following choices would be the correct sequence for administration of emergency drugs for anaphylactic shock: (1) albuterol, (2) parenteral epinephrine, (3) intravenous corticosteroids?

a.1, 2, 3

b.1, 3, 2

c.2, 1, 3

d.2, 3, 1

e.3, 1, 2

c.2, 1, 3

Which should be administered first for a patient having an asthma attack?

a.Aminophylline

b.Corticosteroids

c.β2-Agonist

d.Epinephrine

c.β2-Agonist

Use of which of the following agents during pregnancy is associated with producing an abnormal number of digits in the newborn?

a.Alcohol

b.Codeine

c.Erythromycin

d.Ketoconazole

d.Ketoconazole

Which of the following opioids has been associated with teratogenicity?

a.Morphine

b.Codeine

c.Lomotil

d.Methadone

b.Codeine

T/F: In managing the pregnant patient, avoiding elective dental treatment is best until the third trimester.

False

The pregnant dental patient is most comfortable during which trimester?

a.First trimester

b.Second trimester

c.Third trimester

d.None of the above

b.Second trimester

Which antiinfective agent is least teratogenic?

a.Clarithromycin

b.Acetaminophen

c.Cephalexin

d.Tetracycline

c.Cephalexin

For which of the following agents does treatment of withdrawal involve replacement of the abused drug with an equivalent drug, followed by gradual withdrawal of the equivalent drug?

a.Opioid analgesics

b.Sedative-hypnotics

c.Alcohol

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

d.All of the above

The recurrent use of alcohol and/or drugs causing clinically and functionally significant impairment is called

a.enabling.

b.psychologic dependence.

c.substance use disorders.

d.tolerance.

e.abstinence syndrome.

c.substance use disorders.

Abuse of _____ is the number one public health problem in the United States.

a.opioids

b.stimulants

c.alcohol

d.hallucinogens

c.alcohol

Approximately _____% of incarcerated individuals are there because of drug abuse problems.

a.20

b.40

c.60

d.80

d.80

Chronic alcohol use increases the risk of cancer of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, and liver, which may occur with tobacco use in a(n) _____ effect.

a.additive

b.synergistic

c.negative

d.canceling

b.synergistic

Signs and symptoms of an acute overdose of amphetamines include

a.pinpoint pupils.

b.hypothermia.

c.diaphoresis.

d.excessive salivation.

c.diaphoresis.

Which drug is associated with a deficiency of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X after chronic abuse?

a.Ethyl alcohol

b.Nicotine

c.Cocaine

d.Nitrous oxide

a.Ethyl alcohol

Which is considered first-line therapy for a patient with type 2 diabetes?

a.Diet and exercise

b.Glucagon

c.Oral antidiabetic agents

d.Insulin

a.Diet and exercise

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends checking serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels before starting therapy with _____ and periodically thereafter.

a.biguanides

b.thiazolidinediones

c.α-glucosidase inhibitors

d.nonsulfonylurea secretagogues

b.thiazolidinediones

For every percentage point drop in hemoglobin A1C, the risk of microvascular complications decreases by __%.

a.10

b.20

c.30

d.40

e.50

d.40

All of the following are likely reasons why diabetics have a higher incidence of periodontal disease except which one?

a.Enhanced collagenase activity

b.Loss of capillary basement membrane integrity

c.Changes in glucose tolerance factor

d.Microangiopathy of the tissues

e.Altered polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMN) function

b.Loss of capillary basement membrane integrity

Which oral antidiabetic agent requires administration for 6 to 14 weeks to achieve maximal therapeutic effect?

a.Tolbutamide

b.Exenatide

c.Metformin

d.Rosiglitazone

e.Glimepiride

d.Rosiglitazone

Diabetic gastroparesis can be treated with

a.amitriptyline.

b.carbamazepine.

c.ranitidine.

d.metoclopramide.

d.metoclopramide.

A "pooped out" pancreas results from

a.ketoacidosis.

b.an autoimmune reaction.

c.a delay in insulin secretion and insulin resistance.

d.a lack of secretion of insulin.

c.a delay in insulin secretion and insulin resistance

T/F: More people are diagnosed with type II diabetes in the United States than are diagnosed with type I diabetes.

True

Contributing factors to gangrene in the extremities of diabetic patients include

a.poor eyesight.

b.poor circulation.

c.reduced sensation in the extremities.

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

d.All of the above

Cretins exhibit all of the following dental abnormalities except which one?

a.Malocclusion

b.Large teeth

c.Delayed tooth eruption

d.Increased tendency to develop periodontal disease

b.Large teeth

All of the following are side effects associated with oral contraceptives except which one?

a.Blood clot

b.Weight gain

c.Headache

d.Nausea

e.Anorexia

e.Anorexia

The posterior pituitary secretes

a.prolactin.

b.oxytocin.

c.corticotrophin-releasing hormone.

d.All of the above

e.None of the above

b.oxytocin.

Simple goiter is prevalent in some areas of the world because iodine is abundant in most foods.

a.Both the statement and the reason are correct.

b.The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

c.The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

d.Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.

b.The statement is correct, but the reason is not.

Each of the following is a potential consequence of hypersecretion of pituitary hormones except one. Which is the exception?

a.Goiter

b.Acromegaly

c.Diabetes insipidus

d.Cushing disease

e.Giantism

c.Diabetes insipidus

Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of cancer of the prostate?

a.Methyltestosterone

b.Clomiphene

c.Finasteride

d.Tamoxifen

e.Mifepristone

c.Finasteride