Cystic Fibrosis Pharmacology

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92 Terms

1
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Which medications are CFTR modulators?

ivacaftor, lumacaftor, tezacaftor, elexacaftor, deutivacaftor, vanzacaftor

2
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What medications are mucociliary clearance agents/bronchodilators used in CF?

dornase alfa, hypertonic saline, mannitol (inhaled), and albuterol

3
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What medications are used as anti-inflammatory agents in CF?

azithromycin, ibuprofen (high-dose)

4
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What antibiotics are used in CF management?

inhaled antibiotics, systemic antibiotics

5
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What are the pros of inhaled medications in cystic fibrosis?

direct delivery of medication to target site provides for high concentrations in the lung and rapid onset of effect with minimal systemic exposure

6
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What are the cons of using inhaled medications in cystic fibrosis?

variable lung deposition due to airway obstruction

7
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What is the brand name of ivacaftor?

Kalydeco

8
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What is the indication for ivacaftor?

age ≥ 1 month with ≥ 1 ivacaftor- responsive mutation (typically classes III and IV)

9
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What is the brand name of lumacaftor/ivacaftor?

Orkambi

10
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What is the indication of lumacaftor/ivacaftor?

age ≥1 year with 2 copies of the F508del mutation (homozygous)

11
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What is the brand name of tezacaftor/ivacaftor?

Symdeko

12
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What is the indication of tezacaftor/ivacaftor

age ≥ 6 years with 2 copies of the F508del mutation or ≥ 1 TEZ/IVA responsive mutation

13
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What is the brand name of elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ ivacaftor?

Trikafta

14
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What is the indication of elexacaftor/ tezacafotr/ ivacaftor?

age ≥ 2 years with ≥1 copy of F508del mutation or ≥ ELE/TEZ/IVA responsive mutation

15
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What is the brand name of vanzacaftor/ tezacaftor/ deutivacaftor?

Alyftrek

16
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What is the indication of vanzacaftor/ tezacaftor/ deutivactor?

age ≥6 years with ≥1 copy of F508del mutation or ≥1 VAN/TEZ/DIVA responsive mutation

17
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What is the MOA of ivacaftor and deutivacaftor?

potentiators; potentiates channel opening probability (gating) of the CFTR protein at the cell surface; decrease in sweat chloride

18
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Which CFTR modulators are potentiators?

ivacaftor and deutivacaftor

19
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Which CFTR modulators are correctors?

lumacaftor, tezacaftor, elexacaftor, and vanzacaftor

20
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What is the MOA of corrector CFTR modulators?

facilitates processing and trafficking of select mutant forms of CFTR, increasing amount of CFTR protein delivered to the cell surface; decrease in sweat chloride

21
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What effect does a potentiator + corrector cause?

synergistic effect

22
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What effect does a corrector + corrector cause?

additive effect

23
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What is the MOA of a corrector + potentiator drug?

increases amount of CFTR protein delivered to the cell surface, AND increases channel opening, increasing chloride transfer

24
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True or False: all CFTR modulators are oral medications

true

25
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What is the distribution of CFTR modulators?

99% protein bound

26
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Which CFTR modulator is the only one that AUC is similar irrespective of fed state?

tezacaftor

27
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How are CFTR modulators primarily eliminated?

via feces

28
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Which CFTR modulator has the longest half-life?

vamzacaftor

29
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How are CFTR modulators metabolized?

extensively via CYP3A4/5 (except lumacaftor)

30
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What metabolism does lumacaftor go through?

oxidation and gluronidation

31
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Which medication requires dose adjustment for mild hepatic impairment?

Kalydeco

32
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Which CFTR modulators should be avoided in severe hepatic impairment?

Trikafta and Alyftrek

33
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What CFTR modulator is a strong CYP3A4 inducer?

lumacaftor

34
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What CFTR modulator is an inhibitor of CYP3A4, CYP2C8/9, and p-glycoprotein?

ivacaftor

35
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What DDIs does vanzacaftor and tezacaftor have?

inhibits p-glycoprotein

36
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What medications are examples of moderate CYP3A4 inhibitors?

fluconazole, erythromycin, and grapefruit juice

37
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What medications are examples of strong CYP3A4 inhibitors?

ketoconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole, voriconazole, telithromycin, clarithromycin

38
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What medications are examples of CYP3A4 inducers?

rifampin, rifabutin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, phenytoin, st. john’s wort

39
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What other drugs does ivacaftor and deutivacaftor interact with?

warfarin, midazolam, digoxin, tacrolimus, cyclosporin

40
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What other drugs does tezacaftor and vanzacaftor interact with?

digoxin, tacrolimus, cyclosporine

41
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What other drugs does elexacaftor interact with?

statins, glyburide, meglitinides

42
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What other drugs does lumacaftor interact with?

hormonal contraceptives, tacrolimus, cyclosporine, some macrolides and azoles

43
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What precautions do CFTR modulators have?

moderate- severe liver disease

44
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What contraindication does Alyftrek have?

moderate-severe liver disease

45
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What contraindication does Trikafta have?

severe liver disease

46
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What are serious ADRs of CFTR modulators?

elevated transaminases (AST/A:T) and bilirubin; possible risk for cataracts; hypersensitivity reactions; rash (female>males)

47
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What should be monitored when on a CFTR modulator?

AS, ALT, bilirubin at baseline, every month for the first 6 months, every 3 months for the next 12 months, and annually thereafter; ophthalmological exams at baseline and during treatment

48
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What is the MOA of dornase alfa?

cleaves neutrophil-derived DNA, which reduces sputum viscoelasticity, aiding its clearance

49
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What is the MOA of hypertonic saline?

provides for high concentrations of sodium chloride in the airway which encourages osmosis of water into the ASL, which rehydrates the mucus and reduces its viscosity, aiding its clearance

50
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What is the MOA of inhaled mannitol?

the sugar alcohol is thought to act as an osmotic agent; this facilitates movement of water into the lumen of the airways which rehydrates the mucus and reduces its viscosity, aiding its clearance

51
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What is the brand name of dornase alfa?

Pulmozyme

52
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What is the brand name of inhaled mannitol?

Bronchitol

53
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Which of the mucociliary clearance agents are a dry powder?

inhaled mannitol

54
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What precautions does inhaled mannitol have?

failure to pass the Bronchitol Tolerance Test

55
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What is an ADR of dornase alfa?

voice alteration

56
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What is an ADR of hypertonic saline?

bronchospasm

57
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What are the ADRs of inhaled mannitol?

bronchospasm, hemoptysis

58
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What is the MOA of azithromycin in CF?

precise mechanism unknown; likely involves multiple pathways, including inhibition of pseudomonas aeruginosa virulence

59
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What is the MOA of high dose ibuprofen in CF?

inhibition of the lipoxygenase pathway, leukotriene B4 production is mitigates and neutrophil migration and function are impaired; anti-inflammatory effect occurs when peak plasma concentration is >50 mcg/mL

60
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True or False: concentrations of ibuprofen <50 results in a paradoxical increase in inflammation, possibly due to shunting form the cyclooxygenase to the lipoxygenase pathway

true

61
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What is the indication for azithromycin in CF?

age ≥ 6 month with pseudomonas aeruginosa

62
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What is the indication for ibuprofen high dose in CF?

age ≥ 6 years old

63
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What are the precautions related to azithromycin in CF?

colonization with NTM

64
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What are the ADRs of azithromycin?

nausea, diarrhea, wheezing

65
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What are the precautions of ibuprofen?

history of gastric ulcers, renal impairment

66
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What are the ADRs related to ibuprofen?

gastric ulceration, nephrotoxicity

67
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What is the brand name of tobramycin DPI?

TOBI Podhaler

68
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What is the brand name of tobramycin solution?

TOBI

69
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What is the brand name of amikacin solution?

Arikayce

70
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What is the brand name of aztreonam solution?

Cayston

71
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What is the indication of tobramycin in CF?

age ≥ 6 years with pseudomonas

72
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What is the indication for amikacin in CF?

age ≥18 years w/ MAC

73
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What is the indication for aztreonam in CF?

age ≥ 7 years with pseudomonas

74
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What are the ADRs for tobramycin and amikacin?

bronchospasm, cough, dysphonia

75
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What is the ADR associated with aztreonam?

bronchospasm

76
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What systemic ADRs does tobramycin and amikacin have?

ototoxicity (tinnitus and hearing loss)

77
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Do you remember your antibiotic coverages?

hellllllll (no) yeah

78
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What clinically important systemic ADRs do pencillins, cephalosporins, aztreonam, and carbapenems have?

hypersensitivity, GI ADRs

79
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What clinically important systemic ADRs do vancomycin and aminoglycosides have?

nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

80
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What clinically important systemic ADRs does FQs have?

tendonitis

81
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What clinically important systemic ADRs does SMX-TMP have?

rash

82
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What clinically important systemic ADRs does linezolid have?

leukopenia

83
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What PD parameter should be optimized for penicillins, cephalosporins, and carbapenems?

Time > MIC

84
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What PD parameter should be optimized for vancomycin and FQs?

AUC:MIC

85
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What PD parameter should be optimized for aminoglycosides?

Peak: MIC, AUC:MIC

86
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What is the goal peak of tobramycin in traditional dosing?

10-12

87
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What is the goal peak of tobramycin in extended interval dosing?

20-30

88
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What is the goal trough of tobramycin in traditional dsoing?

<1

89
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What is the goal trough of tobramycin in extended interval dosing?

0

90
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What is the goal 18-hour level of tobramycin in extended interval dosing?

<1

91
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What is the goal through of vancomycin?

10-15

92
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What is the goal AUC:MIC ratio of vancomcyin?

400