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Comprehensive practice flashcards for Imaging Quiz 3, covering C-spine, shoulder, elbow, and hand/wrist imaging based on high-yield lecture notes.
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According to the Canadian C-Spine Rule (CCR), what age is considered a high-risk factor requiring imaging?
Age ≥65
What are the three high-risk factors identified in the Canadian C-Spine Rule?
Age ≥65, Dangerous mechanism, and Extremity paresthesia
Name the four low-risk factors in the CCR that allow for Range of Motion (ROM) assessment.
Simple rear-end MVC, Able to sit/ambulatory, Delayed onset neck pain, and No midline C-spine tenderness
What is the specific ROM assessment required to clear a patient under the CCR?
The patient must actively rotate the neck 45∘ bilaterally
What is the sensitivity of the Canadian C-Spine Rule for detecting fractures?
99.4%
How many criteria must be present to clear a patient using the NEXUS Low Risk Rule?
All 5 criteria
What are the 5 criteria of the NEXUS Low Risk Rule?
What is the primary screening modality for suspected C-spine injury according to ACR 2009?
CT
Compare the sensitivity of radiography versus CT for C-spine fractures.
CT is much more sensitive than radiography$
Which two junctions of the spine are most commonly missed on C-spine radiographs?
Craniovertebral (C1−C2) and Cervicothoracic (C7−T1) junctions
What percentage of odontoid fractures occur at C2?
Hal
Which type of odontoid fracture is most common, and what is its percentage of occurrence?
Type II, accounting for 81%
What is the typical mechanism for odontoid fractures in young individuals?
High-impact trauma or MVAs
What is the typical mechanism for odontoid fractures in older adults (>75)?
Falls from standing or seated height
What is the anatomical description of a Type II odontoid fracture?
Horizontal fractures across the odontoid
What is the primary risk factor for odontoid fractures in patients over 60 years of age?
Osteoporosis
What is the 1-year mortality rate for odontoid fractures in the general population versus those over 80 years old?
General: ∼30%, Over 80: 59%
Which imaging modality is best for bony elements like the odontoid?
CT
Which imaging modality is best for assessing neural tissues in the cervical spine?
MRI
How common is Atlanto-Axial Subluxation (AAS) in patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis?
33−50% (often asymptomatic)
What is the normal Anterior Atlanto-Dens Interval (AADI) in adults?
<3mm
An AADI greater than how many millimeters suggests transverse ligament compromise?
>3mm
What are two risk factors for AAS in patients with RA?
Long-standing RA (>10 years) and erosive disease
How does neck retraction affect AAS?
It produces similar AAS as flexion
Why should isometric extension be avoided in suspected AAS?
It causes the Atlanto-Dens (AAD) to increase
How does isometric flexion affect the AAD interval?
It causes the AAD to decrease
What is the preferred imaging for chronic neck pain when assessing for instability?
Radiography
What is the average age of onset for Cervical Spondylotic Myelopathy (CSM)?
∼64
Which spinal level is most common for CSM?
C5−C6
What two health conditions are associated with CSM?
Smoking and diabetes
List three early symptoms of CSM.
UE sensory changes, loss of hand fine motor function, and gait disturbance
What are the 5 findings in the screening cluster for CSM?
What is the sensitivity and specificity of Hoffmann's reflex for myelopathy?
Sensitivity: 44%, Specificity: 75%
What is the specificity of the Trömer Sign?
95%
Which myelopathic sign has a specificity of 100%?
Finger Escape
When does the clinical significance of Hoffmann's reflex increase?
When it is unilateral or asymmetrical
What are the Likelihood Ratios (LR) for Hoffmann's reflex?
+LR=2.6, −LR=0.51
In which population is Posterior Longitudinal Ligament Ossification (OPLL) more prevalent?
Asian populations
When does OPLL usually become symptomatic?
In the 5th to 6th decades
What is the most common clinical presentation of OPLL?
Cervical myelopathy
Which imaging modality is best for visualizing ossification in OPLL?
CT
What are the four questions in the DOWN Questionnaire for myelopathy screening?
What cervical spine condition occurs in 10−30% of individuals with Down Syndrome?
A-A (Atlanto-Axial) instability
What percentage of individuals with Down Syndrome have Os odontoideum?
6%
Which condition places a patient at high risk for fractures from simple falls?
Ankylosing Spondylitis
What is the diagnostic contribution of shoulder radiography in the absence of trauma?
15−24%
In the absence of shoulder trauma, how often does radiography change management?
<2\%
Compare the sensitivity and specificity of Non-contrast MRI for Rotator Cuff tears.
Sensitivity: 94%, Specificity: 93%
Compare the sensitivity and specificity of Ultrasound (US) for Rotator Cuff tears.
Sensitivity: 92%, Specificity: 93%
Which modality is superior specifically for partial-thickness rotator cuff tears?
Ultrasound
Which modality is best for assessing capsulolabral lesions in the shoulder?
MR Arthrography
List the 4 predictors for a full-thickness rotator cuff tear.
What is the Positive Likelihood Ratio (+LR) if all 4 full-thickness tear predictors are present?
28.0
List the 3 predictors for a partial or full rotator cuff tear.
What is the +LR if all 3 partial/full tear predictors are present?
9.8
What is Goutallier Stage 0?
Normal muscle
What defines Goutallier Stage 2?
<50% fatty muscle atrophy
What defines Goutallier Stage 4?
>50% fatty muscle atrophy
How soon does fatty infiltration begin after tendon detachment?
By 4 weeks
In fatty infiltration of the shoulder, what is considered the best outcome post-repair?
No worsening (no improvement occurs)
Fatty infiltration of which muscle indicates a poor prognosis?
Infraspinatus
At what amount of displacement is surgical stabilization needed for a Greater Tuberosity fracture?
>5mm
What is the imaging recommendation for persistent shoulder pain post-trauma with negative radiographs?
MRI
Who is the typical demographic for proximal humerus fractures?
Older women with osteoporosis and falls
What is the sensitivity and specificity of MR Arthrography for capsulolabral lesions?
Sensitivity: 88%, Specificity: 93%
Which imaging modality is considered the gold standard for bone deficiency (bone loss) in the shoulder?
3D CT
What range of glenoid bone loss is considered critical for stability?
15−20%
Define a Hill-Sachs lesion.
Humeral head compressed or abraded against the glenoid fossa, accompanying GH dislocations
Distinguish between a fibrous and bony Bankart lesion regarding imaging choice.
MRI for fibrous Bankart; CT for bony Bankart
Why is non-contrast MRI considered inaccurate for SLAP lesions?
Low sensitivity and high false negatives
What are the two best clinical tests for a suspected SLAP lesion?
Passive Compression and Passive Distraction
What is the sensitivity and specificity of an MR Arthrogram for SLAP lesions?
Sensitivity: 95.6%, Specificity: 85.7%
How are stress radiographs performed for the Acromioclavicular (AC) joint?
By suspending 10−15lbs of weight from the patient
What is the normal acromio-clavicular (A-C) interval?
1−3mm
What A-C interval measurement is considered pathologic?
>6−7mm or >2−3mm compared to the opposite side
What is the normal coracoclavicular interval?
11−13mm
What increase in coracoclavicular interval relative to the opposite side is pathologic?
>5mm
List three MRI findings associated with adhesive capsulitis.
Coracohumeral ligament thickening, axillary recess thickening, and rotator interval fat pad obliteration
Match the acromial morphology types: Type I, II, III, IV.
I: Flat, II: Curved/Concave, III: Hooked, IV: Inferiorly Convex
Which acromial morphology type is associated with increased rotator cuff tears?
Type III (Hooked)
What is the normal acromiohumeral distance?
8−12mm
At what acromiohumeral distance do tendon tears become more prevalent?
<8mm
If the acromiohumeral distance is <7mm, what percentage of patients have a normal appearing tendon?
4.2%
In asymptomatic subjects over age 60, what are the prevalence rates for full and partial-thickness tears?
Full-thickness: 28%, Partial-thickness: 26%
At what age do Rotator Cuff abnormalities become nearly universal?
After age 40
What four active movements can clear the elbow without imaging after trauma?
In which population are the elbow trauma clearance rules less accurate?
Pediatric patients
What is the common age group for supracondylar fractures?
Children (age 5−7) and seniors
Which nerve is commonly injured in supracondylar fractures?
Ulnar nerve
What is the mean age for radial head fractures?
43
What is the common mechanism for a radial head fracture?
FOOSH (Fall On OutStretched Hand) where the radial head impacts the capitellum
What is the 'Fat Pad Sign' or 'Sail Sign' indicative of?
An intra-articular problem
If a fat pad sign is present but no fracture is visible on radiographs, what is the next step?
Additional imaging is indicated
What two things does Ultrasound look for when screening for elbow fractures?
Overt fracture evidence or intra-articular effusion
When does the medial epicondyle ossification center usually appear and close?
Appears at ∼4−6 years; open until ∼age14−15
What is the typical age of onset for a medial epicondyle avulsion fracture?
11−12 years
Which demographic is most at risk for medial epicondyle avulsion fractures?
Male throwing athletes (especially baseball pitchers)
Medial epicondyle avulsion fractures often present as which Salter-Harris type?
Salter-Harris I
Which imaging modality can reveal medial epicondyle pre-avulsion injury before symptoms appear?
MRI
In which two sports is Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum most prevalent?
Baseball (males) and Gymnastics (females)