Imaging Quiz 3 Practice Flashcards

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Comprehensive practice flashcards for Imaging Quiz 3, covering C-spine, shoulder, elbow, and hand/wrist imaging based on high-yield lecture notes.

Last updated 5:32 PM on 7/7/26
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1
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According to the Canadian C-Spine Rule (CCR), what age is considered a high-risk factor requiring imaging?

Age 65\ge 65

2
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What are the three high-risk factors identified in the Canadian C-Spine Rule?

Age 65\ge 65, Dangerous mechanism, and Extremity paresthesia

3
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Name the four low-risk factors in the CCR that allow for Range of Motion (ROM) assessment.

Simple rear-end MVC, Able to sit/ambulatory, Delayed onset neck pain, and No midline C-spine tenderness

4
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What is the specific ROM assessment required to clear a patient under the CCR?

The patient must actively rotate the neck 4545^{\circ} bilaterally

5
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What is the sensitivity of the Canadian C-Spine Rule for detecting fractures?

99.4%99.4\%

6
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How many criteria must be present to clear a patient using the NEXUS Low Risk Rule?

All 55 criteria

7
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What are the 5 criteria of the NEXUS Low Risk Rule?

  1. No posterior midline C-spine tenderness, 2. No focal neurologic deficit, 3. Normal alertness, 4. No intoxication, 5. No distracting painful injury
8
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What is the primary screening modality for suspected C-spine injury according to ACR 2009?

CT

9
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Compare the sensitivity of radiography versus CT for C-spine fractures.

CT is much more sensitive than radiography$

10
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Which two junctions of the spine are most commonly missed on C-spine radiographs?

Craniovertebral (C1C2C1-C2) and Cervicothoracic (C7T1C7-T1) junctions

11
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What percentage of odontoid fractures occur at C2C2?

Hal

12
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Which type of odontoid fracture is most common, and what is its percentage of occurrence?

Type II, accounting for 81%81\%

13
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What is the typical mechanism for odontoid fractures in young individuals?

High-impact trauma or MVAs

14
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What is the typical mechanism for odontoid fractures in older adults (>75>75)?

Falls from standing or seated height

15
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What is the anatomical description of a Type II odontoid fracture?

Horizontal fractures across the odontoid

16
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What is the primary risk factor for odontoid fractures in patients over 6060 years of age?

Osteoporosis

17
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What is the 1-year mortality rate for odontoid fractures in the general population versus those over 8080 years old?

General: 30%\sim 30\%, Over 8080: 59%59\%

18
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Which imaging modality is best for bony elements like the odontoid?

CT

19
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Which imaging modality is best for assessing neural tissues in the cervical spine?

MRI

20
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How common is Atlanto-Axial Subluxation (AAS) in patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis?

3350%33-50\% (often asymptomatic)

21
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What is the normal Anterior Atlanto-Dens Interval (AADI) in adults?

<3mm<3\,mm

22
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An AADI greater than how many millimeters suggests transverse ligament compromise?

>3mm>3\,mm

23
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What are two risk factors for AAS in patients with RA?

Long-standing RA (>10>10 years) and erosive disease

24
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How does neck retraction affect AAS?

It produces similar AAS as flexion

25
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Why should isometric extension be avoided in suspected AAS?

It causes the Atlanto-Dens (AAD) to increase

26
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How does isometric flexion affect the AAD interval?

It causes the AAD to decrease

27
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What is the preferred imaging for chronic neck pain when assessing for instability?

Radiography

28
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What is the average age of onset for Cervical Spondylotic Myelopathy (CSM)?

64\sim 64

29
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Which spinal level is most common for CSM?

C5C6C5-C6

30
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What two health conditions are associated with CSM?

Smoking and diabetes

31
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List three early symptoms of CSM.

UE sensory changes, loss of hand fine motor function, and gait disturbance

32
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What are the 5 findings in the screening cluster for CSM?

  1. Gait deviation, 2. Hoffmann's reflex, 3. Inverted supinator sign, 4. Babinski/up-going plantar response, 5. Age >45>45
33
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What is the sensitivity and specificity of Hoffmann's reflex for myelopathy?

Sensitivity: 44%44\%, Specificity: 75%75\%

34
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What is the specificity of the Trömer Sign?

95%95\%

35
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Which myelopathic sign has a specificity of 100%100\%?

Finger Escape

36
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When does the clinical significance of Hoffmann's reflex increase?

When it is unilateral or asymmetrical

37
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What are the Likelihood Ratios (LR) for Hoffmann's reflex?

+LR=2.6+LR = 2.6, LR=0.51-LR = 0.51

38
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In which population is Posterior Longitudinal Ligament Ossification (OPLL) more prevalent?

Asian populations

39
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When does OPLL usually become symptomatic?

In the 5th to 6th decades

40
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What is the most common clinical presentation of OPLL?

Cervical myelopathy

41
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Which imaging modality is best for visualizing ossification in OPLL?

CT

42
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What are the four questions in the DOWN Questionnaire for myelopathy screening?

  1. Dropping things? 2. Off-balance? 3. Weakness in arms/hands? 4. Numbness/tingling in arms/hands?
43
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What cervical spine condition occurs in 1030%10-30\% of individuals with Down Syndrome?

A-A (Atlanto-Axial) instability

44
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What percentage of individuals with Down Syndrome have Os odontoideum?

6%6\%

45
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Which condition places a patient at high risk for fractures from simple falls?

Ankylosing Spondylitis

46
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What is the diagnostic contribution of shoulder radiography in the absence of trauma?

1524%15-24\%

47
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In the absence of shoulder trauma, how often does radiography change management?

<2\%

48
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Compare the sensitivity and specificity of Non-contrast MRI for Rotator Cuff tears.

Sensitivity: 94%94\%, Specificity: 93%93\%

49
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Compare the sensitivity and specificity of Ultrasound (US) for Rotator Cuff tears.

Sensitivity: 92%92\%, Specificity: 93%93\%

50
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Which modality is superior specifically for partial-thickness rotator cuff tears?

Ultrasound

51
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Which modality is best for assessing capsulolabral lesions in the shoulder?

MR Arthrography

52
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List the 4 predictors for a full-thickness rotator cuff tear.

  1. Age 60\ge 60, 2. Painful arc, 3. Positive infraspinatus test, 4. Positive drop arm test
53
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What is the Positive Likelihood Ratio (+LR+LR) if all 4 full-thickness tear predictors are present?

28.028.0

54
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List the 3 predictors for a partial or full rotator cuff tear.

  1. Weakness on external rotation, 2. Age 65\ge 65, 3. Night pain with loss of sleep
55
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What is the +LR+LR if all 3 partial/full tear predictors are present?

9.89.8

56
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What is Goutallier Stage 0?

Normal muscle

57
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What defines Goutallier Stage 2?

<50%<50\% fatty muscle atrophy

58
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What defines Goutallier Stage 4?

>50%>50\% fatty muscle atrophy

59
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How soon does fatty infiltration begin after tendon detachment?

By 44 weeks

60
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In fatty infiltration of the shoulder, what is considered the best outcome post-repair?

No worsening (no improvement occurs)

61
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Fatty infiltration of which muscle indicates a poor prognosis?

Infraspinatus

62
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At what amount of displacement is surgical stabilization needed for a Greater Tuberosity fracture?

>5mm>5\,mm

63
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What is the imaging recommendation for persistent shoulder pain post-trauma with negative radiographs?

MRI

64
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Who is the typical demographic for proximal humerus fractures?

Older women with osteoporosis and falls

65
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What is the sensitivity and specificity of MR Arthrography for capsulolabral lesions?

Sensitivity: 88%88\%, Specificity: 93%93\%

66
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Which imaging modality is considered the gold standard for bone deficiency (bone loss) in the shoulder?

3D CT

67
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What range of glenoid bone loss is considered critical for stability?

1520%15-20\%

68
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Define a Hill-Sachs lesion.

Humeral head compressed or abraded against the glenoid fossa, accompanying GH dislocations

69
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Distinguish between a fibrous and bony Bankart lesion regarding imaging choice.

MRI for fibrous Bankart; CT for bony Bankart

70
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Why is non-contrast MRI considered inaccurate for SLAP lesions?

Low sensitivity and high false negatives

71
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What are the two best clinical tests for a suspected SLAP lesion?

Passive Compression and Passive Distraction

72
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What is the sensitivity and specificity of an MR Arthrogram for SLAP lesions?

Sensitivity: 95.6%95.6\%, Specificity: 85.7%85.7\%

73
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How are stress radiographs performed for the Acromioclavicular (AC) joint?

By suspending 1015lbs10-15\,lbs of weight from the patient

74
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What is the normal acromio-clavicular (A-C) interval?

13mm1-3\,mm

75
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What A-C interval measurement is considered pathologic?

>67mm>6-7\,mm or >23mm>2-3\,mm compared to the opposite side

76
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What is the normal coracoclavicular interval?

1113mm11-13\,mm

77
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What increase in coracoclavicular interval relative to the opposite side is pathologic?

>5mm>5\,mm

78
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List three MRI findings associated with adhesive capsulitis.

Coracohumeral ligament thickening, axillary recess thickening, and rotator interval fat pad obliteration

79
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Match the acromial morphology types: Type I, II, III, IV.

I: Flat, II: Curved/Concave, III: Hooked, IV: Inferiorly Convex

80
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Which acromial morphology type is associated with increased rotator cuff tears?

Type III (Hooked)

81
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What is the normal acromiohumeral distance?

812mm8-12\,mm

82
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At what acromiohumeral distance do tendon tears become more prevalent?

<8mm<8\,mm

83
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If the acromiohumeral distance is <7mm<7\,mm, what percentage of patients have a normal appearing tendon?

4.2%4.2\%

84
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In asymptomatic subjects over age 6060, what are the prevalence rates for full and partial-thickness tears?

Full-thickness: 28%28\%, Partial-thickness: 26%26\%

85
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At what age do Rotator Cuff abnormalities become nearly universal?

After age 4040

86
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What four active movements can clear the elbow without imaging after trauma?

  1. Full extension, 2. Flexion to 9090^{\circ}, 3. Full pronation at 9090^{\circ}, 4. Full supination at 9090^{\circ}
87
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In which population are the elbow trauma clearance rules less accurate?

Pediatric patients

88
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What is the common age group for supracondylar fractures?

Children (age 575-7) and seniors

89
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Which nerve is commonly injured in supracondylar fractures?

Ulnar nerve

90
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What is the mean age for radial head fractures?

4343

91
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What is the common mechanism for a radial head fracture?

FOOSH (Fall On OutStretched Hand) where the radial head impacts the capitellum

92
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What is the 'Fat Pad Sign' or 'Sail Sign' indicative of?

An intra-articular problem

93
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If a fat pad sign is present but no fracture is visible on radiographs, what is the next step?

Additional imaging is indicated

94
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What two things does Ultrasound look for when screening for elbow fractures?

Overt fracture evidence or intra-articular effusion

95
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When does the medial epicondyle ossification center usually appear and close?

Appears at 46\sim 4-6 years; open until age1415\sim age\,14-15

96
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What is the typical age of onset for a medial epicondyle avulsion fracture?

111211-12 years

97
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Which demographic is most at risk for medial epicondyle avulsion fractures?

Male throwing athletes (especially baseball pitchers)

98
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Medial epicondyle avulsion fractures often present as which Salter-Harris type?

Salter-Harris I

99
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Which imaging modality can reveal medial epicondyle pre-avulsion injury before symptoms appear?

MRI

100
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In which two sports is Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD) of the capitellum most prevalent?

Baseball (males) and Gymnastics (females)