Mental Health Unit 3: Neurocognitive Disorders & Psychopharmacology

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Forty question-and-answer flashcards covering Alzheimer’s disease, neurocognitive disorders, somatic symptom disorder, defense mechanisms, psychopharmacology, and high-yield side effects.

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41 Terms

1
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What is the primary cause of Alzheimer’s disease?

A progressive neurodegenerative disorder that leads to a gradual decline in cognitive function, memory, and judgment.

2
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Name the three clinical stages of Alzheimer’s disease.

Early (mild), Middle (moderate), and Late (severe).

3
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List three major risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease.

Advanced age, APOE4 genetic variant, and head trauma or cardiovascular disease.

4
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Which defense mechanism involves fabricating stories to fill memory gaps in Alzheimer’s patients?

Confabulation.

5
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Which widely used screening tool assesses cognitive function in Alzheimer’s disease?

The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).

6
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What is the mechanism of action of cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil?

They increase acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.

7
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In which stages of Alzheimer’s disease are cholinesterase inhibitors most effective?

Mild to moderate stages.

8
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Why must cholinesterase inhibitors be used cautiously in patients with asthma or COPD?

Because they can cause bronchoconstriction and worsen respiratory status.

9
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Memantine belongs to which drug class and what is its mechanism of action?

It is an NMDA antagonist that blocks excessive calcium influx into neurons, slowing cell death.

10
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What is the first and most important step in treating delirium?

Identify and treat the underlying cause.

11
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Define Somatic Symptom Disorder (SSD).

Psychological distress expressed as physical symptoms without adequate medical explanation.

12
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For how long must a patient be preoccupied with physical symptoms to meet criteria for SSD?

More than 6 months.

13
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What is the first stage of Reattribution Treatment for Somatic Symptom Disorder?

Feeling understood—using active listening and empathy.

14
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List the four stages of Reattribution Treatment.

Feeling understood, Broadening the agenda, Making the link, and Negotiating further treatment.

15
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Which defense mechanism involves repeating phrases or behaviors to hide memory loss?

Perseveration.

16
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How does the onset of delirium differ from the onset of a neurocognitive disorder (NCD)?

Delirium has an abrupt onset, whereas NCD develops gradually.

17
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What is the prognosis for neurocognitive disorders such as Alzheimer’s disease?

They are progressive and irreversible, eventually requiring full-time care.

18
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What is the mechanism of action of first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs)?

They block dopamine D2 receptors.

19
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Name two hallmark extrapyramidal side effects associated with FGAs.

Dystonia and akathisia (others include Parkinsonism).

20
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Which life-threatening reaction characterized by fever and rigidity can occur with FGAs?

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS).

21
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What metabolic adverse effect is strongly associated with second-generation antipsychotics (SGAs)?

weight gain, hyperglycemia, and dyslipidemia.

22
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Which neurotransmitters are primarily affected by SGAs?

They block both dopamine and serotonin receptors.

23
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Describe the mechanism of action of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs).

They inhibit serotonin reuptake, increasing synaptic serotonin levels.

24
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What potentially fatal condition can result from excessive serotonergic activity?

Serotonin Syndrome.

25
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Which antidepressant class can cause hypertensive crisis when combined with tyramine-rich foods?

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs).

26
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What blood-pressure change is a key side effect of SNRIs such as venlafaxine?

Increased blood pressure.

27
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Which antidepressant (NDRI) is contraindicated in patients with a seizure history?

Bupropion (Wellbutrin).

28
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Name two common anticholinergic side effects of Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs).

Dry mouth and blurred vision (others include constipation).

29
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What severe dermatologic reaction is associated with lamotrigine therapy?

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome.

30
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State the therapeutic serum range for lithium used in bipolar disorder.

0.6–1.2 mEq/L.

31
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List two early clinical signs of lithium toxicity.

Gastrointestinal upset and coarse tremor (others: confusion, seizures).

32
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What hydration teaching is critical for patients taking lithium?

Maintain adequate fluid and consistent sodium intake; avoid dehydration and NSAIDs.

33
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What serious withdrawal complication can follow abrupt cessation of benzodiazepines?

Seizures.

34
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What is a major advantage of buspirone over benzodiazepines?

It does not cause sedation or dependence.

35
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Give one example of a cholinesterase inhibitor used in Alzheimer’s disease.

Donepezil (others include rivastigmine and galantamine).

36
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What nursing strategy is recommended for managing time spent on physical complaints in SSD?

Limit the time allotted to discussing physical symptoms while building rapport.

37
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Which defense mechanism involves refusing to acknowledge memory loss?

Denial.

38
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List three risk factors for Illness Anxiety Disorder.

Having a first-degree relative with the disorder, childhood trauma, and low self-esteem.

39
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Define Factitious Disorder.

A condition in which a person intentionally produces or feigns symptoms for emotional attention without external gain; may involve self-injury or harming others (by proxy).

40
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What key teaching should be given regarding discontinuation of antipsychotic medications?

Do not stop them abruptly; taper under medical supervision to avoid relapse or rebound psychosis.

41
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Which screening tools are commonly used for both delirium and dementia assessment?

The Confusion Assessment Method (CAM) and the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).