Immunization Exam FPP1 Modules

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Last updated 7:31 PM on 4/24/26
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98 Terms

1
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Which of the following antibody classes is the mediator of allergy and anaphylaxis?

IgA

IgM

IgE

IgG

IgE

2
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Which of the following describes the role of helper T cells in mounting an immune response to a vaccine?

Produces large amounts of antigen specific antibodies

Directly kills infected cells

Present antigen to antibodies

Produce cytokines that stimulate B cells to produce antibodies

Produce cytokines that stimulate B cells to produce antibodies

3
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Which of the following is an advantage of passive immunity compared to active immunity?

Passive immunity is long-lasting

Passive immunity protects almost immediately

Passive immunity does not interfere with the development immune responses from live vaccines

Passive immunity develops in response to infection or after giving a vaccine or toxoid

Passive immunity protects almost immediately

4
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Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

Administration of high titer immune globulin

Administration of a recombinant immunogenic protein

Administration of a live attenuated viral vaccine

Infection with natural disease

Administration of high titer immune globulin

5
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Which of the following is/are true regarding live attenuated vaccines?

More than one live attenuated vaccine can be given at the same visit

Live attenuated vaccines generally have milder reactions versus inactivated vaccines

They are stronger versions of the "wild" virus

All of the above

More than one live attenuated vaccine can be given at the same visit

6
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Which of the following represents a true contraindication to measles vaccine?

Moderate or severe acute illness with or without fever

Vaccine candidate's mother is pregnant

Vaccine candidate is pregnant

History of thrombocytopenia

Vaccine candidate is pregnant

7
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Which of the following is a contraindication to receiving live vaccines?

Diabetes

Chronic liver disease

Allergy to penicillin

Taking prednisone 40 mg by mouth daily for 21 days

Taking prednisone 40 mg by mouth daily for 21 days

8
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In general, increasing the interval between doses of a multi-dose vaccine diminishes the effectiveness of the vaccine.

True

False

False

9
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Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated for a pregnant woman?

Inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)

Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis vaccine (Tdap)

Live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)

20-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV20)

Live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)

10
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When receiving an influenza vaccine, a patient with an egg allergy requires additional safety measures beyond those recommended for receipt of any vaccine.

True

False

False

11
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An infant has antibodies which they received from the mother. What type of immunity is this?

Compromised immunity

Passive immunity

Herd immunity

Active immunity

Passive Immunity

12
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Which statement best defines cold chain management?

Maintaining appropriate storage and handling conditions

Minimizing exposure to excessive heat or cold

Checking that vaccines are potent and effective when used

Checking vaccines for physical evidence of lost potency before administration

Maintaining appropriate storage and handling conditions

13
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Which type of storage unit would be appropriate for storing a vaccine that requires a freezer?

Dormitory-style refrigerator with internal freezer area

Freezer compartment of a household-grade combination refrigerator/freezer unit

Bottom freezer compartment of a household-grade combination refrigerator/freezer unit

Stand-alone freezer unit

Stand-alone freezer unit

14
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Which of the following describe appropriate storage conditions for inactivated vaccines?

Should be stored in the center of the refrigerator

Should be stored in the freezer

Are stored at room temperature

Are not affected by storage temperature

Should be stored in the center of the refrigerator

15
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Which of the following vaccines must be stored in the freezer?

Varicella vaccine

Recombinant zoster vaccine

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

Human papillomavirus vaccine

Varicella vaccine

16
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Which of the following is true regarding best practices for vaccine preparation? (Hint: Vaccine AdministrationLinks to an external site.)

 

Multi-dose vials may be used for 7 days once opened

 

For large influenza clinics, it is good practice to draw up large quantities (15 doses) at one time

 

Manufacturer-filled syringes may be used for 48 hours once the sterile seal is broken

 

Syringes other than those filled by the manufacturer should be administered immediately

Syringes other than those filled by the manufacturer should be administered immediately

17
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Refrigerator and freezer temperature(s):

Must be checked three times daily

Must be maintained between +35 and +46 F and -58 and +5 F respectively

Logs must be kept on hand for 7 years

Logs should be posted near the pharmacist work station

Must be maintained between +35 and +46 F and -58 and +5 F respectively

18
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The temperature within a vaccine storage unit is found to be out of the recommended range. What action needs to be taken immediately?

Notify the vaccine coordinator

Move the vaccines to the staff breakroom refrigerator

Adjust the thermostat, close the door making sure the seal is tight and recheck in 1 hour

Throw out all the vaccines

Notify the vaccine coordinator

19
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The liquid diluent for recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV) is:

stored in the freezer

distilled water

AS01B adjuvant suspension

0.9% sodium chloride

AS01B adjuvant suspension

20
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Which of the following can be done to prevent vaccine storage problems?

Place containers of water labeled "do not drink" into refrigerator to stabilize temperatures

Utilize a multi-outlet power strip to plug-in both the freezer and refrigerator

Plug in both the refrigerator and freezer into one outlet

Utilize extension cords to plug into an outlet that is rarely utilized

Place containers of water labeled "do not drink" into refrigerator to stabilize temperatures

21
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Which of the following is true regarding Vaccine Information Statements (VIS)?

They are updated every month

They are designed to provide information about vaccines, or, in the case of a minor, the child's parent or guardian about the risks and benefits of each vaccine

They are meant to prevent questions to healthcare providers regarding vaccines

The VIS can serve as the "informed consent" for vaccination

They are designed to provide information about vaccines, or, in the case of a minor, the child's parent or guardian about the risks and benefits of each vaccine

22
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Which of the following is the appropriate strategy for giving the Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) to patients?

The VIS can be posted in the clinic for the patient to read while they wait

The VIS is required for only immunization of pediatric patients

The VIS should be given to the patient prior to immunization so the patient has time to review it and ask questions

The VIS should be given to the patients 1 week prior to the immunization visit to allow time to review

The VIS should be given to the patient prior to immunization so the patient has time to review it and ask questions

23
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Which of the following items should be included in immunization records for vaccines administered in the pharmacy?

Type of vaccine, date administered, site of administration, site of vaccine storage, vaccine manufacturer and lot number, VIS publication date with the date given to the patient/parent or guardian

Type of vaccine, date administered, vaccine manufacturer and lot number, and the VIS publication date with the date given to the patient/parent or guardian

The date administered, site of administration, vaccine manufacturer and lot number, and the VIS publication date with the date given to the patient/parent or guardian

Type of vaccine, date administered, site of administration, vaccine manufacturer and lot number, VIS publication date with the date given to the patient/parent or guardian, and the initials and title of the practitioner administering the vaccine

Type of vaccine, date administered, site of administration, vaccine manufacturer and lot number, VIS publication date with the date given to the patient/parent or guardian, and the initials and title of the practitioner administering the vaccine

24
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The recommendations for prevention of vaccine preventable diseases made by the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) are published in which of the following?

Immunofacts

The New England Journal of Medicine (NEJM)

The Annals of Internal Medicine

Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)

Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR)

25
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Which of the following most accurately describes the federally-mandated training for employees with blood and body fluid exposure?

A handout alone can be used for retraining

A standardized training program must be delivered to all employees regardless of exposure risk

Initial training and annual retraining are required for bloodborne pathogens

Use of safer injection devices may be included in initial training only

Initial training and annual retraining are required for bloodborne pathogens

26
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Which of the following is true regarding bloodborne pathogen exposure and immunizations?

Every pharmacy providing immunizations must have a bloodborne pathogen exposure control plan

The FDA is the main authority providing guidance on minimizing exposure

No extra immunizations or training need to be offered to employees that provide immunizations

Providing immunizations is a high risk activity for exposure

Every pharmacy providing immunizations must have a bloodborne pathogen exposure control plan

27
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Which of the following should be completed in all pharmacies that provide immunizations?

Training employees about bloodborne pathogens and the pharmacy's bloodborne exposure control plan

Recapping needles after immunizations are administered to prevent needlesticks

Wearing gowns, gloves, and goggles when giving vaccines

Posting an orange biohazard symbol on the refrigerator door that is used to store vaccines

Training employees about bloodborne pathogens and the pharmacy's bloodborne exposure control plan

28
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How should the disposal of sharps containers be handled? (Hint: Sharps Disposal Containers in Health Care FacilitiesLinks to an external site.)

 

Follow the health care facility's policies and procedures or local medical waste disposal guidelines

 

The are of little concern because of the puncture-proof nature of the containers

 

Done when the container is full to the top

 

Dispose routinely with the regular garbage pickup

Follow the health care facility's policies and procedures or local medical waste disposal guidelines

29
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Why is the safety of vaccines held to a higher standard than for most medications?

The risks associated with vaccines are perceived by the individual to be voluntary risks

They are administered to healthy people to prevent disease rather than to sick people to cure disease

The diseases prevented by vaccination are generally not life threatening

The public is willing to accept a high degree of risk to avoid most infectious diseases

They are administered to healthy people to prevent disease rather than to sick people to cure disease

30
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The Countermeasures Injury Compensation Program (CICP):

Provides benefits to seriously injured individuals that resulted from using certain antivirals

Reimburses pharmacies the cost of expired or unused vaccines

Reviews all of the adverse effects submitted through the VAERS program

Was established from the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act

Provides benefits to seriously injured individuals that resulted from using certain antivirals

31
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Which of the following scenarios are healthcare professionals encouraged to use Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS) for reporting?

Serious adverse reactions for which causation is firmly established

Only serious, life-threatening adverse reactions

Any clinical significant adverse event after vaccination

Only adverse reactions that have not been previously reported

Any clinical significant adverse event after vaccination

32
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Who can submit a report to VAERS? Select all that apply.

Vaccine manufacturer

Physician

Pharmacist

Patient

Vaccine manufacturer

Physician

Pharmacist

Patient

33
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Which of the following describes the Vaccine Injury Compensation Program?

Provides planned immunization safety studies to fill gaps in scientific knowledge about serious adverse events

Persons filing claims for compensation are required to prove negligence on the part of the healthcare provider

Program that reviews vaccine administration errors and performs a cause/effect analysis

Provides financial compensation to persons who are found to have been injured by a vaccine

Provides financial compensation to persons who are found to have been injured by a vaccine

34
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One of the Clinical Immunization Safety Assessment (CISA) project's main goal is to serve as a vaccine safety resource for consultation on clinical vaccine safety issues.

True

False

True

35
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For how long should a patient be observed after immunization?

No observation period needed

30 minutes

15 minutes

5 minutes

15 minutes

36
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Which manifestation of anaphylaxis is epinephrine used to treat?

Arrhythmias

Decreased oxygen saturation

Hemorrhage

Hypotension

Hypotension

37
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Anaphylaxis generally will not occur until 1-2 hours after administration of a vaccine.

True

False

False

38
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Which is a sign of syncope?

Loss of consciousness

Urticaria

Tingling of the throat and lips

Swelling at the injection site

Loss of consciousness

39
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Which is a sign of anaphylaxis?

Headache

Loss of vision

Falling for no reason

Swelling of the face

Swelling of the face

40
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Diphenhydramine relieves upper or lower airway obstruction, hypotension, and shock.

True

False

False

41
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Why is a second dose of measles vaccine is recommended for all college students without evidence of immunity?

The second dose provides another opportunity for seroconversion for those who failed to respond to the first dose

The measles vaccine used a decade ago was much less effective than the current formulation

Vaccine-induced immunity wanes over ten years and reimmunization provides a boost

Most children received a killed vaccine for their first dose

The second dose provides another opportunity for seroconversion for those who failed to respond to the first dose

42
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Which patient is a candidate for the MMR vaccine?

11 month old child who has not received a dose of the MMR vaccine

5 year old child who received a dose of MMR vaccine at 15 months of age

30 year old health care worker who has documented laboratory evidence of immunity to measles, mumps, and rubella from a blood test done 3 years ago

18 year old child who received 2 doses of MMR vaccine, one at age 12 months and the other at 5 years of age

5 year old child who received a dose of MMR vaccine at 15 months of age

43
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How many doses of varicella vaccine should an 11 year old patient receive if they have no prior history of varicella disease or vaccination?

4

2

3

1

2

44
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Which patient is a candidate for varicella vaccine?

6-month-old who needs IIV4 simultaneously and again in 28 days

12-month-old who received MMR two weeks ago

5-year-old who received DTaP four weeks ago

37-year-old pregnant female

5-year-old who received DTaP four weeks ago

45
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For which of the following patients is the human papillomavirus vaccine series indicated?

A 5-year-old female who presents for a well child visit prior to entering school

A 65-year-old female who has a sister with cervical cancer

A 16-year-old female who recently became sexually active

A 50-year-old male with a history of genital warts

A 16-year-old female who recently became sexually active

46
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Sam is a 48-year-old healthy male presenting to a pharmacy wondering if he would be able to get the recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV). You explain the guidelines to Sam; which explanation is correct?

RZV is currently indicated only in patients over age 65 as that is what is covered by insurance.

RZV is a live vaccine and can only be administered alone at least 60 days between any other vaccine.

RZV is a subcutaneous injection and one can expect injection site pain for up to 2 weeks post-injection.

RZV is effective in reducing the incidence of shingles and is indicated in immunocompetent patients aged 50 and older.

RZV is effective in reducing the incidence of shingles and is indicated in immunocompetent patients aged 50 and older.

47
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How is rotavirus commonly transmitted?

Infected blood

Fecal-oral route

Respiratory secretions

Through contact with infected animals

Fecal-oral route

48
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Which patient is a candidate for the HPV vaccine?

5 year old child with asplenia

48 year old adult who is sexually active with multiple partners

11 year old child being seen for a sports physical

55 year old recovering from cervical cancer

11 year old child being seen for a sports physical

49
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Which hepatitis B vaccine may be administered to adults 18 years of age and older as a 2 dose series?

Recombivax HB

PreHevbrio

Engerix-B

Heplisav-B

Heplisav-B

50
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Which patient is a candidate for the meningococcal conjugate vaccine?

44 year old college professor who teaches freshman English courses

35 year old nurse who works in the emergency department of a hospital

8 year old attending Girl Scout camp this summer

16 year old adolescent attending high school at a new school this fall

16 year old adolescent attending high school at a new school this fall

51
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Which vaccine has pediatric and adult formulations?

Polio vaccine

Hepatitis A vaccine

Human papillomavirus vaccine

Meningococcal conjugate vaccine

Hepatitis A vaccine

52
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Match the vaccine with its administration route. Answers may be used more than once or not at all.

Priorix (MMR)

Shingrix (RZV)

Gardasil 9 (HPV)

Rotarix (Rotavirus)

Subcutaneous, Intramuscular ,Oral ,Intradermal Intranasal

Priorix (MMR)

Subcutaneous

Shingrix (RZV)

Intramuscular

Gardasil 9 (HPV)

Intramuscular

Rotarix (Rotavirus)

Oral

53
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What age group is typically at the highest risk for death related to seasonal influenza vaccine?

Persons 18 through 64 years of age

Adults 65 years of age and older

Persons 5 through 49 years of age

Children older than 5 years of age

Adults 65 years of age and older

54
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A 7 year old child has never received a seasonal influenza vaccine. How many doses will they need to receive this season?

1

3

2

4

2

55
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What is the most common adverse reaction after intramuscular influenza injection?

Systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and a runny nose

Guillian-Barre syndrome

Flu-like symptoms

Redness, soreness, and swelling at the injection site

Redness, soreness, and swelling at the injection site

56
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For which of the following individuals would it be acceptable to use live attenuated influenza vaccine?

A 50-year-old construction worker with type 2 diabetes

A 48-year-old healthy mechanical engineer whose spouse has type 2 diabetes

A 19-month-old healthy child

A 13-year-old girl with asthma

A 48-year-old healthy mechanical engineer whose spouse has type 2 diabetes

57
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Which of the following is the appropriate timing for influenza vaccine administration?

Live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) can be administered as early as August, but inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) should not be administered earlier than October 15

Influenza vaccine should be administered no sooner than September or October and should continue throughout the season

Influenza vaccine should be administered only from October 15 until December 31

Influenza vaccine should be administered as soon as the clinician has a vaccine supply but should stop no later than October 31

Influenza vaccine should be administered no sooner than September or October and should continue throughout the season

58
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What is the routine schedule for giving inactivated polio vaccine to children?

2, 4, 6, 12-15 months

2, 4, 6-18 months of age

2, 4, 6-18 months, and 4-6 years of age

2, 4, 6-18 months, and 4-6 years of age with a booster dose every 10 years

2, 4, 6-18 months, and 4-6 years of age

59
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Which patient should receive one dose of pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV20)?

65-year-old with diabetes who received PPSV23 5 years earlier

6-month-old receiving the 3rd dose only of the childhood PCV series

40-year-old with hypertension

12-year-old with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD

65-year-old with diabetes who received PPSV23 5 years earlier

60
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Which of the following describes a difference between Tdap and DTaP?

Tdap has a lower dose of diphtheria toxoid for use in individuals aged 10-11 years and older

DTaP has a lower dose of diphtheria toxoid for use in individuals less than 7 years

DTaP is used in children and adults for primary series

Tdap should be used for all three doses of the primary tetanus-diphtheria series for adults

Tdap has a lower dose of diphtheria toxoid for use in individuals aged 10-11 years and older

61
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All women should optimally receive one dose of Tdap when?

Optimally between 27 and 36 weeks gestation of their first child

Pregnant women should not receive the vaccine

Optimally between 27 and 36 weeks gestation of each pregnancy

After the birth of their first child

Optimally between 27 and 36 weeks gestation of each pregnancy

62
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Which process correctly describes cocooning against pertussis?

Process of vaccinating close contacts including mother, father, siblings, grandparents, and out of home care providers

Wrapping infant tightly in a blanket to act as a protective barrier

Infant vaccine series begins at 2 months and continues at 4, 6, 15-18 months, and a booster at 4-6 years

Taking long naps with a newborn

Process of vaccinating close contacts including mother, father, siblings, grandparents, and out of home care providers

63
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Which pneumococcal vaccine is indicated for a healthy 33 year old who works in a child care center?

PPSV23

No pneumococcal vaccine is recommended

PCV13

Either PCV15 or PCV20

No pneumococcal vaccine is recommended

64
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Which pneumococcal vaccine is indicated for a healthy 67 year old who has not previously received any pneumococcal vaccine? Select all that apply.

PCV20

PCV15 (then PPSV23 1 year later)

PCV21 (then PPSV23 1 year later)

PCV20 (then PPSV23 1 year later)

PCV15

PCV21

PCV20

PCV15 (then PPSV23 1 year later)

PCV21

65
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Per OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration), bloodborne pathogens training must be completed every 2 years for immunizers.

True

False

False

66
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Which of the following skills is among the standards of practice for immunizing pharmacists?

Basic life support (BLS)

Advanced cardiac life support

Emergency medical technician

First aid training

Basic life support (BLS)

67
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In general, what is a contraindication to receipt of routine vaccines?

Allergy to penicillin

Anaphylaxis to a previous dose

Patient is breastfeeding

Patient is taking an antibiotic

Anaphylaxis to a previous dose

68
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Which of the following is true in regards to student pharmacists as immunizers?

Interns who provide immunizations must be current in CPR and blood borne pathogens training

Interns do not need to complete a certification course if the supervising pharmacist is certified

An intern can delegate administration of a vaccine to a technician

Interns who provide immunizations must be current in CPR and blood borne pathogens training

69
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How should you proceed if vaccine arrives from the manufacturer and is outside the recommended temperature range?

Store the vaccine as recommended separately from other stock and call the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for advice

Repack the vaccine and return it to the manufacturer

Store the vaccine as recommended separately from other stock, label with "Do Not Use", and call the manufacturer's quality control office for advice

Place the vaccine in stock and use it first

Store the vaccine as recommended separately from other stock, label with "Do Not Use", and call the manufacturer's quality control office for advice

70
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Which of the following is a CDC best practice in regards to vaccine storage and handling?

Refrigerated vaccines should be kept on the top shelf of the refrigerator

Refrigerator and freezer temperatures only need to be monitored once daily even if the temperature-monitoring device does not have a maximum/minimum display

A bio-safe glycol-based or buffered thermometer should be used to monitor the temperature of the refrigerator

One pharmacy employee should be designated to be in charge of storage and handling in case of a temperature related emergency

A bio-safe glycol-based or buffered thermometer should be used to monitor the temperature of the refrigerator

71
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What vaccine is required to be offered to health care providers per the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard?

Pneumococcal conjugate

Influenza

Hepatitis B

Tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis

Hepatitis B

72
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Which pharmacy employee is a candidate for the hepatitis B vaccine as part of the OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard?

Clerk providing shoe fittings for patients with diabetes

Technician administering immunizations

Delivery driver entering patients' homes

Cashier working with patients at the register

Technician administering immunizations

73
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Which vaccine is covered by Medicare Part B? (HintLinks to an external site.)

 

Influenza

 

Tdap

 

RZV

 

HPV

Influenza

74
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What is the copay amount paid by a Medicare Part D beneficiary for herpes zoster immunization? (HintLinks to an external site.)

 

The copay is dependent whether the the patient's deductible has been met

 

RZV is not covered by Part D so they should be charged the cash price

 

$0

 

RZV should be billed to their Part B insurance

$0

75
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The Iowa Board of Pharmacy requires annual or biannual continuing education for pharmacists to administer vaccinations. (Hint: remember our discussion about the statewide protocol)

True

False

True

76
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Where is the publication date on a Vaccine Information Statement (VIS)?

At the top of the front page

There is no publication date on the VIS

The bottom corner of the back page

The bottom corner of the back page

77
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When should you give a patient the vaccine information statement (VIS)?

Before vaccination

After vaccination

Before vaccination

78
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In Iowa, do you need to record the expiration date of the vaccine? (Hint: look at the statewide protocol)

No

Yes

Yes

79
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In general, which of the following is TRUE?

Decreasing the interval between doses of a multidose vaccine does not diminish the effectiveness of the vaccine.

Increasing the interval between doses of a multidose vaccine does not diminish the effectiveness of the vaccine.

Increasing the interval between doses of a multidose vaccine does not diminish the effectiveness of the vaccine.

80
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In general, giving two or more vaccines on the same day (simultaneous administration) of all recommended vaccines is appropriate.

True

False

True

81
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Which combination of vaccines can be administered at the same visit?

Prevnar 13 and Pneumovax 23

Varivax and smallpox

Fluzone and Shingrix

Prevnar 13 and Menactra

Fluzone and Shingrix

82
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What is the correct interval between two live vaccines if they are not simultaneously administered?

At least 4 weeks

At least 4 months

No interval needed

At least 4 days

At least 4 weeks

83
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In general, the first dose of an inactivated vaccine usually provides protection.

True

False

False

84
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Boosters are usually not necessary for live attenuated vaccines.

True

False

True

85
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Match the potential adverse reaction to a vaccine with the category of reaction.

Pain at injection site

Headache

Swelling at injection site

Fever

Redness at injection site

Anaphylaxis

Local adverse reaction, Systemic adverse reaction, Local adverse reaction, Systemic adverse reaction, Local adverse reaction, Allergic reaction

Pain at injection site

Local adverse reaction

Headache

Systemic adverse reaction

Swelling at injection site

 Local adverse reaction

Fever

Systemic adverse reaction

Redness at injection site

 Local adverse reaction

Anaphylaxis

 Allergic reaction

86
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Classify the following combinations as a precaution or contraindication to vaccination.

Anaphylaxis to a dose of vaccine and a subsequent dose of that vaccine

Moderate acute illness without fever and any vaccine

Severe immunosuppression and live attenuated vaccines

History of intussusception and rotavirus vaccine

Family history of seizures and MMRV vaccine

Contraindication,Precaution

Anaphylaxis to a dose of vaccine and a subsequent dose of that vaccine

 Contraindication

Moderate acute illness without fever and any vaccine

Precaution

Severe immunosuppression and live attenuated vaccines

 Contraindication

History of intussusception and rotavirus vaccine

 Contraindication

Family history of seizures and MMRV vaccine

 Precaution

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Which of the following antibody classes is the mediator of allergy and anaphylaxis?

IgA

IgE

IgG

IgM

Ige

88
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If a patient has a history of contact dermatitis from neomycin, they cannot receive vaccines that contain neomycin.

True

False

False

89
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Live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in patients who are pregnant.

True

False

True

90
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For how long after completing chemotherapy or radiation must a person wait before receiving a live vaccine?

At least 6 months

At least 3 months

No waiting period needed

At least 4 weeks

At least 3 months

91
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What is the threshold dose of prednisone at which a patient is considered immunosuppressed?

10 mg per day for 14 days or longer

20 mg per day for 14 days or longer

10 mg per day for 5 days or longer

20 mg per day for 5 days or longer

20 mg per day for 3 months or longer

20 mg per day for 14 days or longer

92
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Vaccination is a form of ______________ immunity.

active

passive

active

93
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Which type of cells replicate upon re-exposure to an antigen to reestablish protection?

B-cells

T-cells

B cells

94
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Which type of vaccine produces mostly a humoral response?

Live attenuated

Inactivated

Inactivated

95
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True or false: chemically linking (conjugate) a protein to a polysaccharide vaccine makes the vaccine less potent.

True

False

False

96
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Which type of vaccine usually produces immunity with one dose?

Live attenuated

Inactivated

Live attenuated

97
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Which type of vaccine should NOT be given to patients with immunodeficiency?

Inactivated

Live attenuated

live attenuated

98
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Which type of vaccine canNOT cause disease from infection, even in an immunodeficient person?

Inactivated

Live attenuated

Inactivated