Week 9 Lesson 74- Bacterial infection of the Reproductive tract

What are Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs)?

Infections affecting the female and male reproductive organs of animals.

What is a common clinical sign of vaginitis in females?

Discharge from the vulva.

What are the symptoms of pyometra in female animals?

Pus discharge, fever, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

What is the definition of metritis?

Inflammation of the uterus.

What characterizes endometritis?

Purulent pus or mucopurulent discharge.

What is placentitis?

Inflammation of the placenta.

Define orchitis.

Inflammation of the testicles.

What is epididymitis?

Inflammation of the testes and epididymis.

Define balanoposthitis.

Inflammation of the penis or preputial cavity.

What is cryptorchidism?

A condition in which one or both testicles don’t descend from the abdominal cavity into the scrotum.

Which bacterium causes abortions in cattle and joint problems in bulls?

Brucella abortus.

What is the primary clinical sign of Brucella melitensis in sheep and goats?

Abortion.

Is Brucella melitensis zoonotic?

Yes.

Which Brucella species is specific to swine?

Brucella suis.

What bacterium is associated with Q fever?

Coxiella burnetii.

Which bacteria cause preputial ulceration in sheep?

Corynebacterium pilosum and C. cystitidis.

What reproductive issue is caused by Chlamydia abortus in cattle?

Abortion.

Which Campylobacter subspecies causes abortions in sheep?

Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus.

What does C. fetus subspecies venerealis cause in cattle?

Infertility.

Which common bacterium is known to cause metritis and other RTIs?

Escherichia coli.

What is a significant cause of embryonic mortality and abortion in horses?

Streptococcus zooepidemicus.

What are the clinical signs of Mycoplasma bovis in cows?

Infertility, endometritis, and vulvitis.

What are the economic impacts of RTIs?

Losses affecting the overall profitability of livestock operations.

How are RTIs classified based on transmission?

Venereal (sexually transmitted), endogenous, or iatrogenic.

What are iatrogenic infections?

Infections introduced through medical procedures.

What is the standard lab approach for diagnosing RTIs?

Culture and sensitivity analysis.

Name four types of samples used for RTI lab analysis.

Vaginal/preputial, uterine, fetal, and placenta.

Why is brucellosis considered an occupational disease for veterinarians?

It can be acquired during vaccination or the removal of a retained placenta.

What is the maintenance host for B. abortus?

Cattle.

How is B. melitensis transmitted to humans?

Ingestion or direct contact with infected animal tissues, fluids, and placentas.

Where is B. melitensis predominantly distributed?

Mediterranean region, Middle East, Asia, and Latin America.

Which Brucella species is maintained by sheep and transmitted venereally?

B. ovis.

In which region is B. ovis commonly found?

New Zealand and Australia.

What are accidental hosts for B. suis?

Cattle, horses, dogs, reindeer, and caribou.

What is the primary transmission route for B. canis?

Venereal.

What female clinical sign of brucellosis occurs after five months of pregnancy?

Abortion with a retained placenta.

What are the male clinical signs of brucellosis?

Orchitis, epididymitis, seminal abnormalities, and testicular atrophy.

Which two-tiered testing strategy is used for brucellosis control?

Rose Bengal test followed by the Complement Fixation Test (CFT).

What is the benefit of the Rose Bengal test?

It is sensitive and ideal for screening large numbers.

Why is CFT used as a confirmatory test for brucellosis?

Because it is highly specific.

What is the primary control measure for brucellosis in the US?

The USDA National eradication program (Test & Slaughter).

What vaccine is used for female calves against B. abortus?

Strain 19 (live attenuated).

Why should the RB51 strain vaccine be used with caution?

Accidental exposure can cause disease in humans.

Where is B. canis a serious problem?

In breeding kennels.

What happens to the testes in chronic canine brucellosis?

Testicular atrophy and sterility.

What is the protocol for positive B. canis dogs in a kennel?

Euthanizing the positive dogs.

What spinal condition is associated with brucellosis in swine?

Spondylitis.

How many human brucellosis cases occur annually in the US?

About 100 cases.

Which Brucella species causes the most serious human infection (Malta fever)?

B. melitensis.

What are human symptoms of Malta fever?

Undulant fever.

Which Leptospira serovar has the pig as its maintenance host?

L. pomona.

What is the maintenance host for L. hardjo-bovis?

Cattle.

Which animals maintain L. bratislava?

Pigs and horses.

What is a key step in preventing the spread of RTIs after an abortion?

Prompt testing and removal of abortive materials.

What is the primary clinical sign of Q fever in livestock?

Abortion and stillbirth.

Which Listeria species is zoonotic and more pathogenic?

L. monocytogenes.

Which Listeria species causes abortion specifically in sheep?

L. ivanovii.

Is listeriosis a contagious disease?

No, it is a non-contagious food-borne infection.

What is the most common source of Listeria in dairy cattle?

Silage with a pH greater than 5.0.

Describe the neurological path of Listeria in sheep.

Oral entry to the trigeminal nerve to brain stem micro abscesses.

What is "circling disease"?

A form of meningo-encephalitis caused by Listeria.

What physical sign indicates facial paralysis in sheep with listeriosis?

Head tilt.

What history is critical for a listeriosis diagnosis?

A history of silage feeding.

What neurological signs are seen in listeriosis?

Confusion, loss of balance, and convulsions.

What histological lesion is characteristic of listeriosis?

Perivascular cuffing.

How can listeriosis be controlled in a herd?

Not feeding spoiled silage and isolating sick animals.

Which human group is at risk for listeriosis-induced abortion?

Pregnant women.

What condition does Listeria cause in immunocompromised adults?

Meningitis.

What is the common name for balanoposthitis in sheep?

Pizzle rot or sheath rot.

What diet is a predisposing factor for "pizzle rot"?

A high protein diet.

Why does high protein lead to posthitis?

High urea excretion leads to increased ammonia, causing irritation.

What are oocysts?

Resistant stages of parasites shed in cat feces.

What are tachyzoites?

Rapidly dividing tissue stages of parasites found in all vertebrate hosts.

Define bradyzoites.

Slowly dividing, encysted tissue stages found in warm-blooded hosts.

What is a definitive host?

The host in which a parasite undergoes sexual reproduction.

Who is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?

Felids (cats).

How is T. gondii transmitted to mammals?

Ingestion of sporulated oocysts or consumption of bradyzoite cysts.

What results from congenital transfer of T. gondii tachyzoites?

Congenital Toxoplasmosis in the fetus.

Name three symptoms of Congenital Toxoplasmosis in humans.

Retinochoroiditis, hydrocephalus, and death.

Which antibodies indicate previous exposure and immunity to Toxoplasma?

IgG.

What does a high IgM level indicate in Toxoplasma testing?

An active infection.

What does Toxoplasma cause in sheep and goats?

Abortion and stillbirth.

How does Toxoplasma cause placental damage?

Tachyzoites cause cell death and granulomatous inflammation in cotyledons.

What happens to adult immunocompromised animals infected with T. gondii?

They may develop respiratory and neurological disorders.

How can bradyzoites be reactivated?

Through host immunosuppression.

What lab test uses avidin-biotin staining for Toxoplasma?

Immunohistochemistry.

What is the Sabin-Feldman dye test used for?

Diagnosing T. gondii.

What is the recommended treatment for dogs with neurological toxoplasmosis?

Clindamycin and Pyrimethamine.

What is ToxoVax®?

A vaccine for breeding ewes to prevent abortions and congenital infections.

How long do oocysts need in the environment to become infectious?

1 to 5 days.

Who are the definitive hosts for Neospora caninum?

Dogs, coyotes, and gray wolves.

How do dogs become infected with Neospora?

Ingestion of infected cattle placenta or aborted fetuses.

What is a major cause of epidemic "abortion storms" in dairy cows?

Neospora caninum.

What physical signs are seen in newborns with Neospora?

Incoordination, hyperextension of limbs, or paralysis.

Is there an approved treatment for Neospora in cattle?

No.

What is the primary transmission route for Tritrichomonas foetus?

Venereal.

Where is T. foetus located in bulls?

Epithelial folds of the prepuce and penis.

Why are bulls considered "clinically normal carriers" of T. foetus?

Because they do not show clinical signs.

What does TrichGuard® vaccine do?

It reduces shedding of T. foetus and slightly increases calving rates.

Name three infective stages of cyst-forming Apicomplexans.

Sporozoites, tachyzoites, and bradyzoites.