ASU Test Training

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Last updated 1:48 AM on 9/21/26
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150 Terms

1
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What is the main purpose of the foundational training path?

Build foundational cybersecurity knowledge

2
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Which behavior best demonstrates deliberate practice?

Repeating a skill in a valid environment and using timely feedback

3
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A learner needs an official source for internal learning content. Which resource is most appropriate?

The approved enterprise learning or knowledge platform

4
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Why should a learner verify training facts before using them in a client engagement?

To ensure the information is accurate and appropriate for the client context

5
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A participant misses a session and needs guidance. What is the best first action?

Contact the designated training administrator or program point of contact

6
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Which approach best supports mastery of a cybersecurity topic?

Combine instruction, hands-on exercises, repetition, and feedback

7
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Why is access control important for internal training materials?

It helps prevent unauthorized disclosure of company information

8
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A learner receives two versions of the same deck. What should the learner do?

Use the approved latest version and validate differences

9
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Which action best reflects professional conduct during training?

Attend on time, follow instructions, and communicate issues early

10
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What is the best way to use an answer key during preparation?

Review mistakes and understand why the correct option is right

11
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What is the primary function of a Security Operations Center?

Continuously monitor, detect, investigate, and respond to security threats

12
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Which item is an indicator of compromise?

A malicious file hash

13
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What does a tactic represent in MITRE ATT&CK?

An adversary's high-level objective

14
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An endpoint repeatedly connects to attacker-controlled infrastructure. Which ATT&CK tactic best applies?

Command and Control

15
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A SIEM alert shows encoded PowerShell launched by a word processor. What should the analyst do first?

Validate the alert and collect relevant process, command-line, user, and host evidence

16
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What is the main goal of containment?

Limit damage and stop further malicious activity

17
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Why are forensic copies created before eradication?

To preserve evidence for investigation

18
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Which Cyber Kill Chain stage follows Delivery?

Exploitation

19
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A rule detects nearly every administrative script and floods the queue. What should be improved?

Detection fidelity

20
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After recovery, which activity best supports improvement?

Document lessons learned and update controls or playbooks

21
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Which artifact is volatile?

Running processes in memory

22
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Why should RAM be collected early during a live investigation?

Its contents may be lost when the system is powered off

23
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Which Windows tool is useful for examining running processes and parent-child relationships?

Process Explorer

24
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A suspicious executable copies itself into an auto-start location. What behavior does this suggest?

Persistence

25
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What does an unusual parent process launching PowerShell most strongly justify?

Further investigation of process ancestry and command-line details

26
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Which Windows component commonly stores configuration and persistence-related values?

Registry

27
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What is the best practice when collecting Windows evidence?

Document actions and preserve integrity with hashes

28
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An investigator finds many svchost.exe processes. What is the most appropriate conclusion?

Count alone is insufficient, paths, signatures, services, and behavior must be checked

29
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Which evidence can help identify account usage?

Authentication and logon events

30
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Why is process path important during triage?

Malware may imitate legitimate names but run from unusual locations

31
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Which command lists files in a directory?

ls

32
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Which command displays the contents of a text file?

cat

33
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Which command shows the current working directory?

pwd

34
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A suspicious process runs under an unusual account. What is the best first step?

Use ps or pstree to inspect the process and its parent

35
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Which command is commonly used to search text for a pattern?

grep

36
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Why should investigators avoid rebooting a compromised Linux host too early?

Volatile evidence such as processes and connections may be lost

37
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Which command can show active network connections on many Linux systems?

ss

38
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A file begins with a dot in Linux. What does that usually indicate?

It is hidden from normal directory listings

39
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Which command shows the current user's identity?

whoami

40
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What should be recorded when collecting a suspicious Linux file?

Path, timestamps, ownership, permissions, and hash

41
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What type of address is 192.168.11.3?

Private IPv4

42
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Which protocol provides secure remote shell access?

SSH

43
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An attacker abuses ICMP directed broadcasts to amplify traffic. What attack is this?

Smurf attack

44
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Which email headers are useful when investigating sender spoofing?

From, Return-Path, Received, and Reply-To

45
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A message uses urgency and a look-alike domain to request payment. What is the most likely threat?

Business Email Compromise or phishing

46
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What is email thread hijacking?

Abusing a legitimate conversation to send deceptive messages in context

47
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A URL contains a misspelled brand name and requests credentials. What should an analyst suspect?

Phishing impersonation

48
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Which network detail identifies a service endpoint on a host?

Port number

49
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What does DNS tunneling abuse?

DNS queries and responses to carry hidden data or commands

50
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Before interacting with a suspicious URL, what is the safest approach?

Use approved analysis methods and avoid opening it directly on a production workstation

51
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How does threat hunting differ from alert-only monitoring?

It proactively searches for malicious activity even without a known alert

52
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What should a hunt mission normally begin with?

A testable hypothesis

53
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Which source can help create a hunting hypothesis?

Threat intelligence about relevant adversary TTPs

54
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What is TTP-driven hunting focused on?

Adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures

55
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Which dataset can reveal suspicious process execution?

Endpoint process metadata

56
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A hunter groups events with similar characteristics to identify anomalies. What technique is being used?

Clustering

57
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What does stack counting help identify?

Unusual highs or lows in repeated events

58
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A hypothesis expects credential dumping. Which evidence is most relevant?

Process execution and security events associated with credential access

59
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After a successful hunt finds a new pattern, what should happen next?

Enrich detections, document findings, and share actionable intelligence

60
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Why is situational awareness important in hunting?

It helps analysts recognize meaningful changes in the environment

61
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Which intelligence type provides raw, machine-readable indicators such as hashes and IPs?

Technical intelligence

62
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Which intelligence type focuses on adversary TTPs and MITRE ATT&CK mapping?

Tactical intelligence

63
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Which intelligence type describes an active campaign, infrastructure, and timeline?

Operational intelligence

64
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Which intelligence type is most suitable for executives making long-term risk decisions?

Strategic intelligence

65
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What is OSINT?

Intelligence collected from publicly available sources

66
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Why should defenders perform OSINT against their own organization?

To understand what adversaries can learn from public information

67
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In MITRE ATT&CK, what does a technique describe?

How an adversary may achieve a tactical objective

68
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A report contains an IP address from one unverified post. What should the analyst do?

Corroborate it with reliable sources and context before action

69
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What is the main value of an intelligence lifecycle?

It turns requirements and collected data into analyzed, disseminated, and improved intelligence

70
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Which output is most actionable for a SOC analyst?

Relevant IOCs and TTPs with context and recommended detection actions

71
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What is malware?

Software intended to cause harm or perform unauthorized actions

72
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What is the main goal of static malware analysis?

Examine a sample without executing it

73
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What is the main goal of dynamic analysis?

Observe behavior while the sample executes in a controlled environment

74
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Which item is a host-based indicator?

A suspicious file hash or registry change

75
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Which activity is suspicious during network-focused malware analysis?

Repeated beaconing to an unknown external IP

76
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Why should malware be analyzed in an isolated sandbox?

To reduce risk to production systems and observe behavior safely

77
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A sample produces random-looking domains repeatedly. What behavior might this indicate?

Domain generation for command-and-control communication

78
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Which tool is commonly used to inspect packet-level malware traffic?

Wireshark

79
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What can strings extracted from a binary reveal?

Possible URLs, commands, paths, or other readable clues

80
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Why are malware analysis findings useful to incident response?

They support IOC extraction, containment, eradication, and improved detection

81
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What is a vulnerability?

A weakness that a threat source could exploit or trigger

82
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What makes a zero-day vulnerability especially challenging?

A fix or patch may not yet be available

83
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Which stage identifies assets and weaknesses through scanning and assessment?

Discovery

84
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Why should prioritization consider asset criticality and threat intelligence?

Severity alone may not reflect actual business and exploitation risk

85
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A critical internet-facing flaw is actively exploited. What is the best response?

Prioritize remediation or mitigation and validate the fix

86
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What is the purpose of remediation validation?

Confirm that the vulnerability is fixed or adequately mitigated

87
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What does CTEM emphasize?

Continuous identification, prioritization, validation, and reduction of exposure

88
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A system cannot be patched immediately. What is the best interim approach?

Apply an approved compensating control and track the exception

89
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Why must vulnerabilities be mapped to asset owners?

Owners are needed to coordinate risk decisions and remediation

90
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Which metric best indicates remediation effectiveness?

Validated closure within agreed risk-based timelines

91
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What is the most important prerequisite before penetration testing?

Clear written authorization and defined scope

92
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How does penetration testing differ from a basic vulnerability assessment?

It may actively validate exploitability within an authorized scope

93
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What is reconnaissance?

Gathering information about a target to identify possible entry points

94
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An image posted publicly contains GPS metadata. What can this expose?

The location where the image was created

95
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Which tool is commonly used for port and service discovery?

Nmap

96
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What is SQL injection?

Supplying crafted input that alters a backend SQL query

97
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What is cross-site scripting?

Injecting script content that executes in a user's browser

98
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A tester finds a severe issue outside the agreed scope. What should happen?

Stop that activity and follow the engagement's escalation rules

99
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Why should evidence be collected during a penetration test?

To support reproducible findings, impact analysis, and remediation

100
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What makes a good penetration-test recommendation?

It is specific, risk-based, and includes practical remediation guidance