Human Anatomy & Physiology

Final Exam

On what bone is the mandibular fossa found?

a. mandible

b. maxilla

c. temporal

d. sphenoid

temporal

What bone is labeled “c”?

a. sphenoid

b. zygomatic

c. parietal

d. temporal

sphenoid

Identify the bone marking labeled “c.”

a. costal facet

b. spinous process

c. lamina

d. pedicle

pedicle

Which of the following bone features is correctly matched with the bone on which it is found?

a. greater tuberosity - tibia

b. ulnar notch - ulna

c. lateral malleolus - tibia

d. lesser trochanter - femur

lesser trochanter - femur

Identify the bone feature labeled “c.”

a. greater tubercle

b. head

c. medial epicondyle

d. anatomical neck

medial epicondyle

Which bone has a radial notch?

a. clavicle

b. humerus

c. ulna

d. radius

ulna

Identify the bone feature labeled “c.”

a. radial notch

b. styloid process

c. head

d. coracoid process

styloid process

Identify the bone feature labeled “d.”

a. articular surface

b. anterior crest

c. medial malleolus

d. lateral malleolus

medial malleolus

When completing a chart showing the organization of the nervous system, which term should be written in box “c”?

a. PNS
b. CNS

c. sensory (afferent) division

d. motor (efferent) division

sensory (afferent) division

Which cranial nerve extends into the ventral body cavity and innervates many of the visceral organs?

a. accessory

b. vagus

c. trigeminal

d. saphenous

vagus

What structure acts as a gateway for sensory impulses before they reach the cerebral cortex?

a. hypothalamus

b. corpus callosum

c. cerebellum

d. thalamus

thalamus

The epidermis of the skin serves as a barrier to mechanical stresses and protects us from microorganisms. What tissue do you think forms the epidermis?

a. pseudostratified columnar epithelium

b. stratified squamous epithelium

c. simple squamous epithelium

d. simple columnar epithelium

stratified squamous epithelium

Why are eyelashes shorter than terminal hairs on the scalp?

a. The growth stage of an eyelash is shorter.

b. Hormones in the eyebrow follicle turn off growth after it has reached a predetermined length.

c. The vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is much less than that of the hair follicle on the scalp.

d. Eyelashes grow slower than terminal hairs.

The growth stage of an eyelash is shorter.

Which statement best describes primary bone?

a. Primary bone contains abundant osteocytes and little inorganic matrix.

b. Primary bone has regularly arranged parallel bundles of collagen fibers for strength.

c. Primary bone is stronger than secondary bone since it contains many lamellae.

d. Primary bone contains a higher percentage of inorganic matrix than secondary bone.

Primary bone contains abundant osteocytes and little inorganic matrix.

Which would NOT be found in the organic matrix of bone?

a. hydroxyapatite crystals

b. collagen fibers

c. osteocalcin

d. glycoproteins

hydroxyapatite crystals

Where can pronation and supination occur?

a. atlantoaxial joint

b. proximal radioulnar joint of the forearm

c. thumb or first capometacarpal joint

d. mandible and maxilla

proximal radioulnar joint of the forearm

Which ligament of the coxal joint supports the inferior aspect of the joint?

a. ischiofemoral ligament

b. pubofemoral ligament

c. ligament of the head of the femur

d. iliofemoral ligament

pubofemoral ligament

In the knee joint, the medial meniscus is:

a. fibrocartilage

b. dense regular collagenous connective tissue

c. hyaline cartilage

d. elastic cartilage

fibrocartilage

Which type of angular movement moves a body part away from the midline of the body or another reference point?

a. abduction

b. flexion

c. plantar flexion

d. adduction

abduction

Which of the following is an example of a synchondrosis?

a. an intervertebral disc situated between the vertebrae of the spinal column

b. an epiphyseal plate found between the shaft (diaphysis) and the end (epiphysis) of a long bone

c. the pubic symphysis and the two surrounding pubic bones of the pelvic girdle

d. the coronal suture situated between the frontal bone and parietal bone

an epiphyseal plate found between the shaft (diaphysis) and the end (epiphysis) of a long bone

Synchondroses unite bones with _____ while symphyses unite bones with _____.

a. dense regular collagenous tissue; elastic cartilage

b. hyaline cartilage; fibrocartilage

c. elastic cartilage; fibrocartilage

d. fibrocartilage; hyaline cartilage

hyaline cartilage; fibrocartilage

Type I fibers lack:

a. mitochondria

b. speed

c. myoglobin

d. a blood supply

speed

A fascicle

a. is a surrounded by endomysium

b. is a bundle of collagen fibers

c. is only found in smooth muscle

d. is surrounded by perimysium

is surrounded by perimysium

What does the depolarization of the transverse tubules (T-tubules) promote?

a. entry of sodium ions into the muscle fiber through voltage-gated sodium ion channels

b. binding of acetylcholine to ligand-gated sodium ion channels

c. release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

d. release of acetylcholine from vesicles in the motor neuron into the synaptic cleft

release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

During muscle contraction, myosin crossbridges bind to active sites on:

a. troponin

b. tropomyosin

c. actin

d. T-tubules

actin

Which of the following wraps around and surrounds an individual skeletal muscle fiber?

a. perimysium

b. epimysium

c. sarcoplasmic reticulum

d. endomysium

endomysium

Between the start of the latent period and the start of the contraction period, there is a time interval during which the muscle cannot respond to another stimulus. This brief period is known as the:

a. action potential

b. relaxation period

c. refractory period

d. tension period

refractory period

Deep inward extensions of the sarcolemma form a tunnel-like network inside the muscle cell known as:

a. myofilaments

b. transverse tubules (T-tubules)

c. myofibrils

d. the sarcoplasmic reticulum

transverse tubules (T-tubules)

The central region of the A band that lacks thin filaments is the:

a. H zone

b. Z disc

c. I band

d. sarcomere

H zone

Which of the following promotes the depolarization stage?

a. closure of voltage-gated sodium ion channels

b. hydrolysis of ATP

c. opening of voltage-gated potassium ion channels and potassium ions exit the cell

d. opening of voltage-gated sodium ion channels and sodium ions enter the cell

opening of voltage-gated sodium ion channels and sodium ions enter the cell

Latrotoxin, produced by the poisonous black widow spider, increase the release of acetylcholine. How do muscle cells respond?

a. Muscle cells will become paralyzed when excess acetylcholine exists.

b. Muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists.

c. Muscle cells will twitch irregularly when excess acetylcholine exists.

d. Muscle cells will experience a longer latent period when excess acetylcholine exists.

Muscle cells will experience fused or complete tetanus when excess acetylcholine exists.

The fastest muscle contraction would be produced by a:

a. type III fiber

b. type IIa fiber

c. type IIx fiber

d. type I fiber

type IIa fiber?

What part of the neuron is a process that can generate and conduct action potentials?

a. cell body

b. axon

c. dendrite

d. neurofibril

axon

The neuron that receives neurotransmitters from another neuron is called:

a. an oligodendrocyte

b. the postsynaptic neuron

c. a neurolemmocyte

d. the presynaptic neuron

the postsynaptic neuron

If a resting axon increases its permeability to sodium ions:

a. the membrane potential will repolarize

b. the influx of sodium ions will increase and the membrane will depolarize

c. the outward movement of sodium ions will decrease

d. the membrane potential will hyperpolarize

the influx of sodium ions will increase and the membrane will depolarize

The presence of a synaptic cleft between cells is characteristic of:

a. electric synapse

b. chemical synapse

c. both chemical and electrical synapses

d. neither chemical nor electrical synapses

chemical synapse

Saltatory conduction occurs:

a. when myelin sheaths are absent

b. when myelin sheaths are present

c. in gray matter

d. when threshold has not yet been reached

when myelin sheaths are present

Which of the following is controlled by the somatic motor division?

a. cardiac muscle

b. glands

c. skeletal muscle

d. smooth muscle

skeletal muscle

Which neuropeptide neurotransmitter is released from fibers transmitting sensory information about pain and temperature?

a. substance P

b. endorphin

c. neuropeptide Y

d. opioids

substance P

What membrane potential must generally be met in order to achieve threshold?

a. -85 mV

b. -70 mV

c. -55 mV

d. -30 mV

-55 mV

Which area on the graph shows when the neuron is in the relative refractory period?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

4

Neurotransmitters that bind ionotropic receptors control:

a. the movement of ions into or out of the postsynaptic neuron

b. the activation of G-proteins inside the postsynaptic neuron

c. the formation of a second messenger inside the postsynaptic neuron

d. some metabolic process inside the postsynaptic neuron

the movement of ions into or our of the postsynaptic neuron

Which of the following is an effect of myelination?

a. Myelination increases the speed of conduction of action potentials.

b. Myelination increases the volume of cerebrospinal fluid in circulation.

c. Myelination increases the rate at which phagocytosis occurs in the brain.

d. Myelination increases the rate of mitosis in damaged neurons.

Myelination increases the speed of conduction of action potentials.

The influx of positive charges makes the membrane potential more positive and is known as:

a. hyperpolarization

b. depolarization

c. repolarization

d. polarization

depolarization

In what dura mater fold is the superior sagittal sinus located?

a. falx cerebri

b. tentorium cerebelli

c. tentorium cerebri

d. falx cerebelli

falx cerebri

The neurotransmitter orexin plays a role in:

a. the regulation of metabolism

b. the promotion of sleepiness

c. body temperature regulation

d. the promotion of wakefulness

the promotion of wakefulness

What part of the cerebral cortex is responsible for personality, the creation of an awareness of self, and the ability to recognize appropriate behavior?

a. Wernicke’s area

b. prefrontal cortex

c. parietal association cortex

d. temporal association cortex

prefrontal cortex

Which description best matches the location of white matter?

a. In both the brain and spinal cord, white matter is superficial.

b. In both the brain and spinal cord, which matter is deep.

c. In the spinal cord, white matter is deep while cerebral white matter is superficial.

d. In the spinal cord, white matter is superficial while cerebral white matter is deep.

In the spinal cord, white matter is superficial while cerebral white matter is deep.

Tactile sensation does NOT refer to:

a. light touch

b. crude touch

c. two-point discrimination

d. vibration

crude touch

What provides a link between the nervous system and the endocrine system?

a. hypothalamus

b. thalamus

c. cerebellum

d. pons

hypothalamus

What is NOT part of the diencephalon?

a. hypothalamus

b. epithalamus

c. thalamus

d. medulla oblongata

medulla oblongata

An injury to the spinal cord is not possible below the:

a. second thoracic vertebra

b. second lumbar vertebra

c. fourth cervical vertebra

d. ninth thoracic vertebra

second lumbar vertebra

What part of the brain is the “boss” of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

a. basal nuclei

b. pons

c. thalamus

d. hypothalamus

hypothalamus

What is situated inferior to the conus medullaris of the spinal cord?

a. lumbar enlargement

b. cauda equina

c. cervical enlargement

d. posterior median sulcus

cauda equina

Which brain nucleus serves as the body’s “master clock”?

a. caudate nucleus

b. basal nucleus

c. lentiform nucleus

d. suprachiasmatic nucleus

suprachiasmatic nucleus

What part of the motor pathway inhibits inappropriate movements?

a. primary motor cortex

b. basal nuclei

c. cerebellum

d. occipital lobe

basal nuclei

An epidural, or spinal anesthesia, is administered into the CSF flow around the spinal cord. Into what space is this medication injected?

a. subarachnoid space

b. epidural space

c. subdural space

d. dural sinus

epidural space

The primary motor cortex of the right cerebral hemisphere:

a. controls the motor activity on the left side of the body

b. receives and processes sensory input

c. integrates senses from multiple different sources

d. controls the motor activity on the right side of the body

controls the motor activity on the left side of the body

Detection of stimuli is a responsibility of the _____ while perception of the stimuli is a responsibility of the _____.

a. CNS; PNS

b. upper motor neuron; lower motor neuron

c. second-order neuron; first-order neuron

d. PNS; CNS

PNS; CNS

What part of the nervous system integrates and interprets information from PNS sensory neurons?

a. central nervous system (CNS)

b. sensory (afferent) division

c. somatic nervous system (SNS)

d. visceral motor division, or autonomic nervous system (ANS)

central nervous system (CNS)

The anterior root and posterior root fuse to form a(n):

a. anterior horn

b. posterior horn

c. posterior (dorsal) root ganglion

d. spinal nerve

spinal nerve

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus terminates as which nerves?

a. radial and ulnar

b. ulnar and median

c. axillary and musculocutaneous

d. axillary and radial

axillary and radial

What is NOT true of muscle spindles?

a. Muscle spindles are receptors for the stretch reflex.

b. The contractile poles of intrafusal fibers within muscle spindles are innervated by 𝛾-motor neurons.

c. Muscle spindles are found within tendons.

d. Muscle spindles are embedded within extrafusal muscle fibers.

Muscle spindles are found within tendons.

A test known as two-point discrimination threshold measures:

a. the type of sensory neuron serving a region of skin

b. the type of mechanoreceptor being stimulated

c. the amount of pressure we can sustain before feeling pain

d. the relative size of receptive fields

the relative size of receptive fields

Determine the polysynaptic reflex from this list of examples.

a. jaw-jerk reflex

b. patellar (knee-jerk) reflex

c. simple stretch reflex

d. flexion (withdrawal) reflex

flexion (withdrawal) reflex

The geniculate ganglion is one of several ganglia that house cell bodies of the sensory root of the:

a. vagus nerve (X)

b. glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

c. trigeminal nerve (V)

d. facial nerve (VII)

facial nerve (VII)

A typical somatic sensory neuron is classified as a:

a. first-order neuron

b. second-order neuron

c. third-order neuron

d. lower neuron

first-order neuron

Autonomic motor neurons do NOT innervate:

a. skeletal muscle cells

b. smooth muscle cells

c. cardiac muscle cells

d. glands

skeletal muscle cells

Where does the cell body of the preganglionic neuron originate?

a. central nervous system (CNS)
b. postganglionic neuron

c. target cell

d. peripheral nervous system (PNS)

central nervous system (CNS)

To increase sweat production from sweat glands, acetylcholine binds:

a. muscarinic receptors

b. beta receptors

c. adrenergic receptors

d. nicotinic receptors

muscarinic receptors

If a drug is administered to block the heart’s adrenergic receptors, how is heart rate affected during exercise?

a. The drug has no effect on heart rate during exercise.

b. Heart rate will increase in response to the drug.

c. Heart rate will be unable to increase in response to exercise.

d. The heart will stop beating.

Heart rate will be unable to increase in response to exercise.

Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors are classified as:

a. beta receptors

b. adrenergic receptors

c. cholinergic receptors

d. alpha receptors

cholinergic receptors

What receptor hyperpolarizes the axon terminal to slow or cancel the action potential when norepinephrine binds?

a. ⍺₂ receptor

b. ⍺₁ receptor

c. β₃ receptor

d. β₂ receptor

⍺₂ receptor

Receptors that bind acetylcholine are known as:

a. beta

b. adrenergic

c. cholinergic

d. alpha

cholinergic

Where are the ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system located?

a. close to the spinal cord

b. near the cells or organ being innervated by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

c. near the parasympathetic preganglionic neuron

d. close to the brain

near the cells or organ being innervated by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

What neurotransmitter is released by both preganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons at their synapses?

a. acetylcholine

b. both epinephrine and norepinephrine

c. epinephrine

d. norepinephrine

acetylcholine

Receptors that bind norepinephrine and epinephrine are known as:

a. adrenergic

b. cholinergic

c. muscarinic

d. nicotinic

adrenergic

Which drug binds receptors on the smooth muscle of airways and causes bronchodilation?

a. ⍺₂-agonist

b. β₂-agonist

c. beta-blocker (antagonist)

d. ⍺₁-blocker (antagonist)

β₂-agonist