Surgery E2 random questions pt 2

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80 Terms

1
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What are the 9 layers of the abdominal wall?**

1. skin

2. subcutaneous tissue

3. superficial fascia

4. external oblique

5. internal oblique

6. transversus abdominis

7. transversalis fascia

8. preperitoneal adipose

9. peritoneum

<p>1. skin</p><p>2. subcutaneous tissue</p><p>3. superficial fascia</p><p>4. external oblique</p><p>5. internal oblique</p><p>6. transversus abdominis</p><p>7. transversalis fascia</p><p>8. preperitoneal adipose</p><p>9. peritoneum</p>
2
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what are the 3 main branches of the aorta that supply the GI tract organs?**

1. celiac a. → supplies foregut

2. superior mesenteric a. → supplies midgut

3. inferior mesenteric a. → supplies hindgut

3
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What is the MC type of hernia?

inguinal

4
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which structures form Hesselbach's triangle?***

Medial → rectus abdominus

lateral → inferior epigastric

inferior → inguinal ligament

<p>Medial → rectus abdominus</p><p>lateral → inferior epigastric</p><p>inferior → inguinal ligament</p>
5
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what structures lay in the inguinal canal?***

male → spermatic cord

female → round ligament of uterus

6
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damage to which nerve could result in persistent testicular pain?

ilioinguinal nerve**

7
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what is the difference between direct and indirect inguinal hernias?***

indirect = through internal inguinal ring

direct = through transversalis fascia in hasselbach's triangle

8
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which open hernia repair (herniorrhaphy) is tension-free?***

lichtenstein →no sutures or mesh

9
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which hernias require emergent surgery?

incarcerated and strangulated

strangulated is more emergent

10
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what are the types of ventral hernias?***

1. umbilical →common in kids

2. incisional →MC in obese/infection/smokers

3. spigelian →lateral edge of rectus muscle

4. obturator →passes through obturator foramen and muscles (elderly female)

<p>1. umbilical →common in kids</p><p>2. incisional →MC in obese/infection/smokers</p><p>3. spigelian →lateral edge of rectus muscle</p><p>4. obturator →passes through obturator foramen and muscles (elderly female)</p>
11
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which laparoscopic hernia repair approach is used for bilateral, large, and recurring hernias?**

transabdominal preperitoneal procedure (TAPP)

12
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omphalocele or gastroschisis: covered by membrane?

omphalocele

gastroschisis is NOT covered

13
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what is the procedure to treat acute peptic ulcer disease?

billroth procedure

14
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which arteries are involved in acute peptic ulcer disease?***

gastric ulcer → erodes gastric and splenic vessels

duodenal ulcer → erodes gastroduodenal artery

15
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what is the MCC of pneumoperitoneum?

perforated ulcer

pneumoperitoneum = free air in diaphragm

16
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what criteria is used to evaluation pancreatitis?

ranson criteria

<p>ranson criteria</p>
17
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what is the MCC of SBO?***

adhesions from surgery

18
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what are the complications of laparoscopic appendectomy?***

- post op infection

- intraabd abscess

- recurrence if remnants remain

19
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if a child <3 has bilious emesis and abd distention, it is __________ until proven otherwise?

volvulus → r/o with stat upper GI series

20
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which dx shows up as coffee/kidney bean on abd XR and birds beak on contrast enema***

volvulus

21
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what is the surgical management of volvulus?***

sigmoid = proctosigmoidectomy w/o anastomosis and temporary colostomy (Hartmanns)

cecum - right hemicolectomy with ileocolic anastomosis

22
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which organ is most frequently injured in blunt abd trauma?

spleen

23
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what is the mainstay for eval of splenic rupture?

stat CT abd pelvis

24
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what are the clinical features of splenic rupture?

seatbelt and kehr sign

hypovolemic shock and LUQ tenderness

lower rib fx

25
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which vaccines should be given after splenectomy?***

pnuemovax

h. influenza

meningiditis

26
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what is the TOC for hemodynamically stable pt with splenic rupture?

non-op management and monitoring***

27
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what is the gold standard for choledocholithiasis?***

ERCP

28
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how do you eval for pancreatic cancer?***

- inc. alk phosphatase

- inc. direct bilirubin

- CT abd

- ERCP→ determines obstruction, can do bx at same time

29
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which dx shows string of pearls air fluid levels on abd XR?***

SBO → also see thickened dilated loops of bowel "stack of coins"

30
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what are the clinical features of pancreatic cancer?***

- courvosier's sign→ jaundice and poalpable nontender GB

- cullen's sign

- obstructive jaundice

- weight loss and deep abd pain

- pruritis with jaundice

<p>- courvosier's sign→ jaundice and poalpable nontender GB</p><p>- cullen's sign</p><p>- obstructive jaundice</p><p>- weight loss and deep abd pain</p><p>- pruritis with jaundice</p>
31
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what is the treatment for pancreatic cancer?***

whipple → for pancreatic HEAD

distal pancreatectomy with splenectomy for tumors in tail/body → these tumors are usually fatal :(

can't do whipple if cancer involves hepatic artery

32
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what is the MC congenital abnormality of the small intestine?**

meckel's diverticulum → MCC of GI bleeding in children

painless rectal bleeding

33
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what is the most sensitive eval for meckel's diverticulum?

Meckel radionuclide scan (Tch-99)

34
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what is the tx for Meckel's diverticulum?***

Meckel's diverticulectomy

35
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which IBD is transmural and has cobblestone appearance and skip lesions?

crohns

36
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which IBD is friable and restricted to the mucosa and submucosa?

UC →microabscess in crypts of lieberkuhn → procedure of choice is proctocolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomosis (IPAA)

37
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what is the procedure of choice for UC?

proctolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomosis

38
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what is the tx for thrombosed hemorrhoids?

hemorrhoidectomy

39
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what is the tx for internal incarcerated hemorrhoids?

immediate hemorrhoidectomy**

40
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which type of hemorrhoid is above the dentate line?**

internal → painLESS

41
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which hemorrhoids tend to thrombose?

external → painFUL

below dentate line***

42
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what are the different classes of hemorrhoids?***

1 = no protrusion

2 = reduces spontaneously

3 = manual reduction necessary

4 = incarcerated→ need hemorrhoidectomy

43
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what is the diff between perirectal and perianal abscesses?

perirectal → inflam of subQ tissue from obstructed crypt gland

perianal → inflam of superficial tissue

tx both with I&D :)

44
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what is the indication for bariatric surgery?***

- BMI >40 or >35 with comorbidity

- unsuccessful weight loss

- mental health clearance

45
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which type of hiatal hernia involves upward displacement of the GEJ causing the GE junction, LES, and part of the stomach to slide into the mediastinum?**

type 1 sliding →MC type

46
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which type of hiatal hernia involves migration of part of the stomach into the mediastinum parallel to the esophagus?**

type 2 paraesophageal → part of the fundus herniates adjacent to the esophagus

47
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which type of hiatal hernia involves both GEJ and part of the stomach migrating into the mediastinum?**

type 3 (both sliding and paraesophageal)

48
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in which type of hiatal hernia do the stomach and other organs herniate into the chest?

type 4

49
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what is the MC complaint of pts with hiatal hernia?

heartburn

50
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what are the surgical options for tx of hiatal hernias?

1. Nissen fundoplication (360)

2. partial fundoplication

3. hill repair

4. belsey

51
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what are the surgical options for GERD?

Nissen fundoplication →360 degree wrap

partial fundoplication (dor and toupet)

<p>Nissen fundoplication →360 degree wrap</p><p>partial fundoplication (dor and toupet)</p>
52
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what is the gold standard procedure for GERD?

laparoscopic nissen fundoplication

53
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what is a common complication of thyroid surgery?

recurrent laryngeal nerve injury*

54
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injury of which nerve results in paralysis of ipsilateral vocal cord leading to hoarseness and weak voice?

recurrent laryngeal nerve

bilateral injury = speech loss and loss of airway control :(

55
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barret's esophagus is a complication of which dx?

GERD

56
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what are the risk factors for squamous cell esophageal cancer?

smoking, alcohol, poor diet

57
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what are the risk factors for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus?

barretts, GERD, obesity, smoking

58
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what is the TOC for esophageal cancer?***

chemo followed by *En Bloc esophagectomy* → requires J-tube for life after surgery

59
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chagas dz is an etiology for which dx?

achalasia ***→failure of LES to relax

dysphagia

regurg of UNDIGESTED food

chest pain

heartburn

60
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what is the gold standard for dx of achalasia?

esophageal manometry**

61
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what does barium swallow in achalasia look like?***

birds beak

<p>birds beak</p>
62
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what is the first line tx for achalasia?

CCBs and PDEIs

63
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what is the surgical management for achalasia?***

laparoscopic heller myotomy with partial fundoplication (to prevent GERD)

<p>laparoscopic heller myotomy with partial fundoplication (to prevent GERD)</p>
64
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what is a Zenker's diverticulum?

diverticulum in the hypopharynx d/t dysfunction of the cricopharyngeal muscle in Killian's triangle

<p>diverticulum in the hypopharynx d/t dysfunction of the cricopharyngeal muscle in Killian's triangle</p>
65
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how would you manage diverticulitis with a large abscess or perforation?***

large abscess → IR drainage

perf/free air→ hartmann procedure

66
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what is the diff between boerhaave's and mallory weiss tear?

boerhaaves = complete perofation

mallory weiss tear = longitudial tear

tx both w stent palcement, debridement/drainage

67
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what are the risk factors for thyroid nodules?**

- increasing age

- female

- iron deficiency

- hx of thyroid radiation

68
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what is the MC type of thyroid cancer?*

Papillary carcinoma → good prognosis

assoc. with radiation exposure

69
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which type of thyroid cancer has the worst prognosis?*

anaplastic

70
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which type of thyroid cancer is seen as part of MEN 2A or 2B?

medullary thyroid → autosomal dominant inheritance

71
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what is the classification system for thyroid nodules?

bethesda

3/4 = FNA q 6-12 months or scan

5/6 = surgery for sure

<p>bethesda</p><p>3/4 = FNA q 6-12 months or scan</p><p>5/6 = surgery for sure</p>
72
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what are the labs for primary hyperparathyroidism?**

excess PTH → inc. Ca++ and dec. PO4

73
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what are the labs for secondary hyperparathyroidism?**

seen w renal dz or vit D deficiency → inc. PO4, dec Ca+, PTH stimulation

74
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what are the labs for hyperthyroidism?*

Low TSH, high T3 and T4

opposite for hypo

75
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what sx is commonly seen with pituitary adenoma?***

bilateral hemianopsia

other sx depend on the hormone secreted

76
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what is the medical management of prolactinoma?

cabergoline or bromocriptine

77
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what is the surgery management for pituitary adenomas?***

transsphenoidal resection → indicated for MACROadenomas (>10mm)

78
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what are the post op complications of parathyroidectomy?***

- perioral numbness/paresthesia

- carpopedal spasm

- seizures

- Chvosteck's sign →tap on facial nerve

79
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what will pts s/p parathyroidectomy need to supplement?***

calcium

80
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what med will pts s/p thyroidectomy need to be on for life?***

levothyroxine