Bio 1 Final Exam

Which of the following is NOT an overarching theme of biology?

A. The molecular basis of inheritance explains the continuity of life
B. The individuals evolve to increase the diversity of a population
C. The relationship between structure and function underlies living systems
D. evolutionary conservation explains unity of living systems

B. The individuals evolve to increase the diversity of a population

Which of the following does Darwin's theory of natural selection NOT require?

A. Genetic variation in a population
B. Low rate of population growth
C. The inheritance of trait from parent to offspring
D. Some organisms are better able to survive and reproduce.

B. Low rate of population growth

Which of the following is NOT a misconception about evolution?

A. Evolution is a theory about the origin of life
B. Evolution only occurs slowly and gradually
C. Humans are not currently evolving
D. Evolutionary change occurs over time through natural selection

D. Evolutionary change occurs over time through natural selection

You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the following do you and the rose have in common?

A. You both are multicellular
B. You both lack a membrane-bound nucleus
C. You are both prokaryotic
D. You and the rose have nothing in common

A. you both are multicellular

Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?

A. the number of electrons in the element
B. the number of protons in the element
C. the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
D. the number of protons plus electrons in the element

C. the number of protons plus neutrons in the element

From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has _____.

A. 5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electrons
B. 15 neutrons and 15 protons
C. 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell
D. 15 protons and 15 electrons

D. 15 protons and 15 electrons

Which of the following is correctly describing a covalent bond?

A. Two atoms of opposite charges
B. Sharing of electrons
C. Weak electrons due to polarized electron clouds
D. Weakest type of bond

B. the sharing of electrons

Which statement is FALSE regarding valence electrons?

A. The chemical behavior of an element reflects how many of the eight positions are filled in the outermost energy level
B. Atoms avoid filling their outer energy levels completely
C. Elements possessing all eight electrons in their outer energy level are non-reactive
D. Elements on the periodic table with either one or seven valence electrons are highly reactive

B. Atoms avoid filling their outer energy levels completely

Isotopes of an element have different numbers of

A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. atomic number

B. neutrons

When a base is added to a buffer solution, the buffer will release ________ to stabilize the pH.

A. OH-
B. Cl-
C. H+
D. Na+

C. H+

Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are _____.

A. hydrogen bonds
B. polar covalent bonds
C. nonpolar covalent bonds
D. ionic bonds

C. nonpolar covalent bonds

Water molecules are attracted to one another by _____.

A. nonpolar covalent bonds
B. ionic bonds
C. hydrogen bonds
D. hydrophobic interactions

C. hydrogen bonds

How many electrons are involved in a double covalent bond?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

D. four

Which of the following is a property of liquid water? Liquid water _____.

A. is less dense than ice
B. has a specific heat that is lower than that for most other substances
C. has a heat of vaporization that is higher than that for most other substances
D. is nonpolar

C. has a heat of vaporization that is higher than that for most other substances

A solution with a pH of 4 has how many more protons in it than a solution with a pH of 7?

A. 5 times
B. 10 times
C. 100 times
D. 1000 times

D. 1000 times

Carboxyl groups are involved in the formation of

A. carbohydrates and triglycerides
B. proteins and nucleic acids
C. triglycerides and proteins
D. carbohydrates and nucleic acids

C. triglycerides and proteins

Which of the following sugars is not a hexose?

A. Fructose
B. Ribose
C. Glucose
D. Galactose

B Ribose

Which kind of bond forms between adenine and thymine in DNA?

A. Hydrogen
B. Covalent
C. Phosphodiester
D. Ionic

A. Hydrogen

A(n) ____ is to a nucleotide as a glycosidic linkage is to a sugar.

A. ester bond
B. peptide bond
C. hydrogen bond
D. phosphodiester bond

D. phosphodiester bond

Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?

A. carbonyl and amino groups
B. carboxyl and amino groups
C. amino and sulfhydryl groups
D. hydroxyl and carboxyl groups

B. carboxyl and amino groups

Which of these classes of biological molecules does not include polymers made of monomers?

A) lipids
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids

A. lipids

A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a(n) _____.

A. fatty acid
B. amino acid
C. nucleic acid
D. monosaccharide

D. monosaccharide

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

A. Dehydration reactions assemble polymers; hydrolysis reactions break polymers apart
B. Dehydration reactions eliminate water from membranes; hydrolysis reactions add water to membranes
C. Dehydration reactions and hydrolysis reactions assemble polymers from monomers
D. Hydrolysis reactions create polymers and dehydration reactions create monomers

B. Dehydration reactions assemble polymers; hydrolysis reactions break polymers apart

A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?

A. an amino group
B. a peptide bond
C. a disulfide bond
D. a β-pleated sheet

B. a peptide bond

What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other proteins?

A. tertiary protein
B. chaperonin
C. renaturing protein
D. denaturing protein

B. chaperonin

If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?

A. 10
B. 40
C. 80
D. It is impossible to tell from the information given.

B. 40

Which of the following are found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?

A. Ribosomes
B. Membrane-bound organelles
C. Genetic Material
D. Flagella

B. Membrane-bound organelles

Which of the following is NOT something that both chloroplast and mitochondria share?

A. Both contain DNA
B. Both use light to generate ATP
C. Both have double membranes
D. Both arose through endosymbiosis

B. They both use light to generate ATP

Cell size is limited by _____.

A. the number of proteins within the plasma membrane
B. the surface area of mitochondria in the cytoplasm
C. surface to volume ratios
D. the size of the endomembrane system

C. Surface to volume ratios

Which does not occur in smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?

A. Steroid hormone synthesis
B. Stores intracellular Ca2+
C. Protein synthesis
D. Carbohydrate synthesis

C. Protein synthesis

What is the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotes?

A. It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus.
B. It synthesizes the proteins required to copy DNA and make mRNA.
C. It selectively transports molecules out of the nucleus, but prevents all inbound molecules from entering the nucleus.
D. It assembles ribosomes from raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus.

A. It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus

Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?

A. rough ER
B. plasmodesmata
C. Golgi vesicles
D. free cytoplasmic ribosomes

A. rough ER

Which of the following is NOT true? Both chloroplasts and mitochondria _____.

A. have their own DNA
B. have multiple membranes
C. are part of the endomembrane system
D. are capable of reproducing themselves

C. are apart of the endomembrane system

Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures?

A. membrane proteins of the inner nuclear envelope
B. free ribosomes and ribosomes attached to the ER
C. components of the cytoskeleton
D. cellulose fibers in the cell wall

C. components of the cytoskeleton

Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella?

A. tubulin
B. laminin
C. actin
D. intermediate filaments

A. tubulin

Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?

A. desmosomes
B. gap junctions
C. extracellular matrix
D. tight junctions

B. gap junctions

The cytoskeleton includes all of the following except

A. microtubules
B. intermediate filaments
C. myosin filaments
D. actin filaments

C. myosin filaments

Which of the following is FALSE?

A. There is typically variation in trains within a population.
B. Natural selection involves organisms trying to adapt
C. Natural selection acts on the genetic variation in a population
D. Humans are still evolving

B. Natural selection involves organisms trying to adapt

Cell theory states that

A. all living things are made of one or more cells
B. Cells communicate with other cells
C. Cells are highly complex
D. Eukaryotic cells were produced by evolution

A. all living things are made of one or more cells

Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?

A. Bacteria and Eukarya
B. Archaea and Monera
C. Bacteria and Protista
D. Bacteria and Archaea

D. Bacteria and Archaea

Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification that stated that organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess _____.

A. non-heritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment
B. non-heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment
C. heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment
D. heritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local environment

C. heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment

The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 has a greater mass number than nitrogen-14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains _____.

A. 7 neutrons
B. 8 neutrons
C. 8 protons
D. 15 protons

B. 8 neutrons

Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a correct statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?

A. Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge.
B. Ammonia has an overall positive charge.
C. Ammonia has an overall negative charge.
D. The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge.

A. Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge

A covalent chemical bond is one in which _____.

A. electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged
B. protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms
C. outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals
D. outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom

C. outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals

How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond?

A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

B. two

Atomic structure is organized as central

A. protons and electrons with orbiting neutrons
B. protons and neutrons with orbiting electrons
C. electrons and neutrons with orbiting protons
D. electrons with orbiting neutrons and protons

B. protons and neutrons with orbiting electrons

Which of the following is a property of water?

A. Denser in its solid form
B. Its temperature is easily changed
C. Good at dissolving non-polar molecules
D. Water molecules are attracted to each other

D. water molecules are attracted to each other

When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of bond results?

A. an ionic bond
B. a hydrogen bond
C. a nonpolar covalent bond
D. a polar covalent bond

C. a nonpolar covalent bond

If an acid gets added to a buffer solution, what would the buffer do?

A. Release H+ ions
B. Absorb H+ ions
C. Release Cl- ions
D. Absorb Cl- ions

B. Absorb H+ ions

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by _____.

A) hydrogen bonds
B) nonpolar covalent bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) ionic bonds

C. polar covalent bonds

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?

A. ionic bonds
B. polar covalent bonds
C. hydrogen bonds
D. both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

C. hydrogen bonds

One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H+) than 1 liter of a solution of pH 6?

A. 4 times more
B. 40,000 times more
C. 10,000 times more
D. 100,000 times more

C. 10,000 times more

A disaccharide is broken apart into two sugars using a ________________ reaction.

A. dehydration
B. hydrolysis
C. hydration
D. hydrophilic

B. hydrolysis

Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide?

A. pentose sugar
B. phosphate group
C. carboxyl group
D. nitrogenous base

C. carboxyl group

Which of the following is FALSE about phospholipids?

A. They are partially hydrophilic
B. They are partially hydrophobic
C. They have a phosphate group attached to a glycerol
D. They contain amino acids

D. they contain amino acids

What is the role of histones in chromatin?

A. They straighten the helix, allowing it to fold without twisting
B. They hold different chromosomes together
C. They act like spools around which the DNA winds to compact
D. They help specify the amino acid sequences in transcription

C. they act like spools around which the DNA winds to compact

In tertiary structure of proteins, the hydrogen bonding occurs between

A. the H atoms from each amino acid's amine group
B. R groups of different amino acids
C. two nitrogenous bases
D. the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another amino acid

B. R groups of different amino acids

Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group?

A. amino
B. carbonyl
C. carboxyl
D. phosphate

C. carboxyl

Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi?

A. chitin
B. cellulose
C. pectin
D. starch

A. chitin

Which of the following is not a polymer?

A. glucose
B. starch
C. cellulose
D. DNA

A. glucose

How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?

A. The polar heads avoid water; the nonpolar tails attract water (because water is polar and opposites attract).
B. Phospholipids do not interact with water because water is polar and lipids are nonpolar.
C. The polar heads interact with water; the nonpolar tails do not.
D. Phospholipids dissolve in water.

C. The polar heads interact with water; the nonpolar tails do not

Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA?

A. cytosine and uracil
B. cytosine and thymine
C. cytosine, uracil, and thymine
D. cytosine, uracil, and guanine

A. cytosine and uracil

If a DNA sample were composed of 20% thymine, what would be the percentage of cytosine?

A. 80
B. 20
C. 30
D. It is impossible to tell from the information given.

C. 30

Which of the following does the smooth endoplasmic reticulum NOT do?

A. Synthesize steroids
B. Synthesize proteins
C. Synthesize membrane lipids
D. Store intracellular Ca2+

B. synthesize proteins

Which of the following is NOT a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A. Eukaryotic cells are generally larger than prokarytoc cells
B. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, prokaryotic cells o not
C. Eukaryotic cells have ribosomes, prokaryotes do not
D. Eukaryotic cells are typically more complex than prokaryote cells

C. eukaryotic cells have ribosomes, prokaryotes do not

What is the function of mitochondria?

A. Break down old organelles and recycle cell materials
B. Metabolize sugar to produce ATP
C. Use light to produce ATP
D. Store water, proteins, and waste

B. metabolize sugar to produce ATP

Where are mitochondria and chloroplasts thought to have originated from?

A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Proteins
D. Smaller eukaryotic cells

A. bacteria

You have a cube of modeling clay in your hands. Which of the following changes to the shape of this cube of clay will decrease its surface area relative to its volume?

A. Pinch the edges of the cube into small folds.
B. Flatten the cube into a pancake shape.
C. Round the clay up into a sphere.
D. Stretch the cube into a long, shoebox shape

C. round the clay up into a sphere

Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?

A. nuclear envelope
B. chloroplast
C. Golgi apparatus
D. plasma membrane

B. chloroplast

In a plant cell, DNA may be found _____.

A. only in the nucleus
B. only in the nucleus and chloroplasts
C in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts
D. in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and ribosomes

C. int the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts

What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell?

A) ER → Golgi → nucleus
B) Golgi → ER → lysosome
C) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
D) ER → lysosomes → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane

C. ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane

Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by attempting to assemble the transport components. They set up microtubular tracks along which vesicles could be transported, and they added vesicles and ATP (because they knew the transport process requires energy). Yet, when they put everything together, there was no movement or transport of vesicles. What were they missing?

A. an axon
B. contractile microfilaments
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. motor proteins

D. motor proteins

Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through _____.

A. plasmodesmata
B. tight junctions
C. desmosomes
D. gap junctions

D. gap junctions

A clusters of rRNA where ribosomes are assembled is called

A. nucleus
B. cisternae
C. nucleolus
D. Golgi complex

C. nucleolus

According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, phospholipids _____.

A) can move laterally along the plane of the membrane
B) frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other
C) occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane
D) have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane

A) can move laterally along the plane of the membrane

Which of these are not embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer at all?

A) transmembrane proteins
B) integral proteins
C) peripheral proteins
D) All of these are embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer.

C) peripheral proteins

What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?

A) large and hydrophobic
B) large polar
C) small and hydrophobic
D) ionic

C) small and hydrophobic

Which of the following allows water to move much faster across cell membranes?

A) the sodium-potassium pump
B) ATP
C) peripheral proteins
D) aquaporins

D) aquaporins

Diffusion _____.

A) is very rapid over long distances
B) requires an expenditure of energy by the cell
C) is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
D) requires integral proteins in the cell membrane

C) is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration

A patient lost a large quantity of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled water equal to the volume of blood lost is added to the blood via one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?

A) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells.
B) The patient's red blood cells will swell and possibly burst because the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells.
C) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells.
D) The patient's red blood cells will burst because the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells.

B) the patient's red blood cells with swell and possibly burst because the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells

Anabolic pathways _____.

A) are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions
B) consume energy to build up polymers from monomers
C) release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers
D) consume energy to decrease the entropy of the organism and its environment

B) consume energy to build up polymers from monomers

A sodium-potassium pump _____.

A) moves three potassium ions out of a cell and two sodium ions into a cell while producing an ATP for each cycle
B) move three sodium ions out of a cell and two potassium ions into a cell while consuming an ATP for each cycle
C) moves three potassium ions out of a cell and two sodium ions into a cell while consuming 2 ATP in each cycle
D) move three sodium ions out of a cell and two potassium ions into a cell and generates an ATP in each cycle

B) move three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell while consuming an ATP for each cycle

Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?

A) water rushing over Niagara Falls
B) light flashes emitted by a firefly
C) a molecule of glucose
D) a crawling beetle foraging for food

C) a molecule of glucose

Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?

A) The products have more total energy than the reactants.
B) The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy.
C) The reaction goes only in a forward direction: all reactants will be converted to products, but no products will be converted to reactants.
D) A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.

B) the reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy

Which of the following is true when comparing an uncatalyzed reaction to the same reaction with a catalyst?

A) The catalyzed reaction will be slower.
B) The catalyzed reaction will have the same ∆G.
C) The catalyzed reaction will have higher activation energy.
D) The catalyzed reaction will consume all of the catalyst.

B) the catalyzed reaction will have the same ∆G

Which of the following is most similar in structure to ATP?

A) a pentose sugar
B) a DNA nucleotide
C) an RNA nucleotide
D) an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached

C) an RNA nucleotide

A noncompetitive inhibitor decreases the rate of an enzyme reaction by _____.

A) binding at the active site of the enzyme
B) changing the shape of the enzyme's active site
C) changing the free energy change of the reaction
D) acting as a coenzyme for the reaction

B) changing the shape of the enzyme's active site

Which of the listed statements describes the results of the following reaction?
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

A) C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced.
B) O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced.
C) CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized.
D) O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.

A)C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced

When a molecule of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom (not a proton), the molecule becomes _____.

A) dehydrogenated
B) oxidized
C) reduced
D) redoxed

C) reduced

Which of the following statements about NAD+ is true?

A) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle.
B) NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH.
C) NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation.
D) In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.

A) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle

Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed by the reactions of glycolysis?

A) 0%
B) 2%
C) 33%
D) 100%

D) 100%

Starting with one molecule of glucose, the energy-containing products of glycolysis are _____.

A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
C) 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP
D) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP

Most of the CO2 from the catabolism of glucose is released during _____.

A) glycolysis
B) electron transport
C) chemiosmosis
D) the Krebs cycle

D) the Krebs cycle

The chemiosmotic hypothesis is an important concept in our understanding of cellular metabolism in general because it explains _____.

A) how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force
B) how electron transport can fuel substrate-level phosphorylation
C) the sequence of the electron transport chain molecules
D) the reduction of oxygen to water in the final steps of oxidative metabolism

A) how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force

Pyruvate oxidation results in the formation of _____.

A) acetyl CoA, O2, and ATP
B) acetyl CoA, FADH2, and CO2
C) acetyl CoA, NADH, and CO2
D) acetyl CoA, NAD+, ATP, and CO2

C) acetyl CoA, NADH, and CO2

Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?

A) the breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules
B) the breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide
C) the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
D) substrate-level phosphorylation

C) the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

The proteins of the electron transport chain are located in the mitochondrial

A) outer membrane
B) inner membrane
C) intermembrane space
D) matrix

B) inner membrane

The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to _____.

A) yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain
B) act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water
C) combine with carbon, forming CO2
D) combine with lactate, forming pyruvate

B) act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water

Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) in aerobic cellular respiration?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 18-24
D) 30-32

D) 30-32

You have a friend who lost 7 kg (about 15 pounds) of fat on a regimen of strict diet and exercise. How did the fat leave his body?

A) It was released as CO2 and H2O.
B) It was converted to heat and then released.
C) It was converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat.
D) It was converted to urine and eliminated from the body.

A) it was released as CO2 and H2O