Harirfaroosh Cumulative (32 slides)

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Stability issues related to protein formulation: What are examples of chemical instability (6)?

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1

Stability issues related to protein formulation: What are examples of chemical instability (6)?

deamidation, oxidation, proteolysis (hydrolysis), disulfide shuffling, racemization, beta elimination

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2

Stability issues related to protein formulation: What are examples of conformational physical instability (2)?

unfolding, misfolding

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3

Stability issues related to protein formulation: What are examples of colloidal physical instability (2)?

aggregation, precipitation

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4

What is the third form of physical instability in addition to conformational and colloidal?

Adsorption

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5

What gauge needles are typically used for insulin injections?

30–32 G needle

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6

The ____ the gauge, the ____ (____) the bore/diameter of the needle

larger, smaller (finer)

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7

Excipients: What is the function of buffers and what are some examples?

  • Function: pH control, tonicity

  • Examples: Histidine, phosphate, acetate, citrate, succinate

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8

Excipients: What is the function of salts and what are some examples?

  • Function: Tonicity, stabilization, viscosity reduction

  • Examples: Sodium chloride

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9

Excipients: What is the function of sugars, polyols and what are some examples?

  • Function: Tonicity, stabilization, cryoprotection, lycoprotein, bulking agent, reconstitution improvement

  • Examples: Sucrose, trehalose, mannitol, sorbitol

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10

Excipients: What is the function of surfactants and what are some examples?

  • Functions: Adsorption prevention, solubilization, stabilization, reconstitution improvement

  • Examples: Polysorbate 20, polysorbate 80, poloxamer

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11

Excipients: What is the function of amino acids and what are some examples?

  • Functions: Stabilization, viscosity reduction, tonicity, pH control, bulking agent

  • Examples: Arginine, glycine, histidine, lysine, proline

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12

Excipients: What is the function of anti-oxidants and what are some examples?

  • Functions: Oxidation prevention

  • Examples: Methionine, sodium edetate

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13

Excipients: What is the function of preservatives and what are some examples?

  • Function: Bacterial growth prevention

  • Examples: m-cresol, benzoyl alcohol, phenol

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14

There are 5 challenges in the Characterization of PK and PD of therapeutic proteins: (1) their definition by the production process in ______ rather than a chemically exactly defined _____ and _____

living organisms rather than a chemically exactly defined structure and purity

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15

There are 5 challenges in the Characterization of PK and PD of therapeutic proteins: (2) their structure similarity to __________ or ______ and ________

structural or functional proteins and nutrients

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16

There are 5 challenges in the Characterization of PK and PD of therapeutic proteins: (3) their intimate involvement in physiologic processes on the _________ level, often including ___________________

molecular level, often including regulatory feedback mechanisms

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17

There are 5 challenges in the Characterization of PK and PD of therapeutic proteins: (4) analytical challenges to _______ and ______ them in the presence of many similar molecules

identify and quantify

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18

There are 5 challenges in the Characterization of PK and PD of therapeutic proteins: (5) their __________ weight and ___________ character

their large molecular weight and macromolecule character

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19

What are reasons that the oral administration may lack systemic bioavailability?

high GI enzyme activity, low permeability through GI mucosa

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20

What are suggested approaches to improving the oral bioavailability of protein drugs (3)?

  • encapsulation into micro- or nanoparticles

  • amino acid backbone modifications and chemical conjugations

  • coadministration of protease inhibitors

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21

IV administration of peptides and proteins bypasses ______________

pre-systemic degradation

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22

___ or ____ injections often provide a more desired concentration-time profile compared to _____ or ______ injections

IM or SC; IV bolus or infusion

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23

___ injections allow self-admin by the patient

SC

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24

What are the three types of insulin preparations?

  1. rapid onset and short duration

  2. intermediate onset and duration

  3. prolonged duration

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25

Which insulins are rapid onset and short duration (5)?

  1. Insulin aspart

  2. Insulin lispro

  3. Insulin glulisine

  4. Insulin (Afrezza) (oral inhalation)

  5. Insulin regular

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26

Which insulins are intermediate onset and duration?

isophane insulin (NPH)

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27

Which insulins have a prolonged duration (3)?

  1. Insulin degludec

  2. Insulin detemir

  3. Insulin glargine

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28

Ghrelin stimulates the hypothalamus to release ______ to tell the anterior pituitary to release GH

GHRH

<p>GHRH</p>
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29

Ghrelin stimulates the hypothalamus to release ______ to stop the anterior pituitary from releasing GH

Somatostatin

<p>Somatostatin</p>
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30

GH from the anterior pituitary will circulated in the body to stimulate to which organs (4)?

adipose tissue, skeletal tissue, bone, liver

<p>adipose tissue, skeletal tissue, bone, liver</p>
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31

In response to GH, what happens in adipose tissue?

increase lipid breakdown (lipolysis)

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32

In response to GH, what happens in skeletal tissue?

increase amino acid transport and protein synthesis

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33

In response to GH, what happens in bone?

increase cell proliferation

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34

In response to GH, what happens in the liver?

releases IGF-i → increase anabolism and positively stimulates hypothalamus to release GHRH

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35

What are the big differences between somatropin and lonapegsomatropin (2)?

  1. somatropin is mostly active, lonapegsomatropin releases fully active somatropin

  2. somatropin’s half-life is much shorter than lonapegsomatropin’s (2.1-7 hr vs 30.7 ± 12.7 hr)

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36

What are the big similarities between somatropin and lonapegsomatropin (2)?

  1. hepatic and renal metabolism

  2. excreted in urine

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37

where is urofollitropin sourced from?

human urine

<p>human urine</p>
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38

Where is follitropin Alfa, Beta, and Delta sourced from?

recombinant DNA

<p>recombinant DNA</p>
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39

Which drug products are myeloid hematopoietic growth factors (4)?

  1. filgrastim

  2. pegfilgrastim

  3. eflapegrastim

  4. sargramostim

<ol><li><p>filgrastim</p></li><li><p>pegfilgrastim</p></li><li><p>eflapegrastim</p></li><li><p>sargramostim</p></li></ol><p></p>
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40

What is a major characteristic with filgrastim’s PK?

  1. exhibits nonlinear PK

  2. short half-life

  3. mostly active (60-70%)

<ol><li><p>exhibits nonlinear PK</p></li><li><p>short half-life</p></li><li><p>mostly active (60-70%)</p></li></ol><p></p>
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41

What is the most common side effect of pegfilgrastim?

bone pain

<p>bone pain</p>
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42

Which of the myeloid hematopoietic growth factors is made with a human IgG Fc fragment?

eflapegrastim

<p>eflapegrastim</p>
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43

Of the myeloid hematopoietic growth factors, which has the longest half-lives?

pegfilgrastim (?) (pegfilgrastim’s half-life has a range 15 - 80 hours, whereas elfapegrastim has a mean half-life of 36.4 hours)

<p>pegfilgrastim (?) (pegfilgrastim’s half-life has a range 15 - 80 hours, whereas elfapegrastim has a mean half-life of 36.4 hours)</p>
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44

Of the myeloid hematopoietic growth factors, which has the shortest half-lives?

sargramostim SubQ (1.4 hours) (filgrastim’s is 3.5 hrs, sargramostim IV is 3.84 hr)

<p>sargramostim SubQ (1.4 hours) (filgrastim’s is 3.5 hrs, sargramostim IV is 3.84 hr)</p>
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45

What are the thrombopoietic growth factors (4)?

  1. romiplostim

  2. eltrombopag

  3. avatrombopag

  4. lusutrombopag

<ol><li><p>romiplostim</p></li><li><p>eltrombopag</p></li><li><p>avatrombopag</p></li><li><p>lusutrombopag</p></li></ol><p></p>
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46

Of the thrombopoietic GFs, which follows flip flop PK?

romiplostim

<p>romiplostim</p>
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47

Of the thrombopoietic GFs, which has a BBW for hepatotoxicity?

eltrombopag

<p>eltrombopag</p>
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48

Of the thrombopoietic GFs, which has the longest half-life?

romipiostim

<p>romipiostim</p>
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49

Of the thrombopoietic GFs, which has the shortest half-life?

avatrombopag

<p>avatrombopag</p>
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50

What is hemophilia B?

a defect in the gene encoding factor IX

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51

What is hemophilia A?

Factor VIII deficiency

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52

Where are genes encoding factor VIII and factor IX located?

X chromosome

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53

What is the most common bleeding disorder?

von Willebrand’s disease

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54

Which agents are used to lyse an occluding thrombus?

Plasminogen activators

<p>Plasminogen activators</p>
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55

Which enzyme removes an NH2 group from deoxyadenosine to deoxyinosine for purine salvage?

adenosine deaminase (ADA)

<p>adenosine deaminase (ADA)</p>
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56

Other than be metabolized by ADA, deoxyadensoine can be converted can be converted to deoxyadenosine triphosphate via which ezyme?

deoxyadenosine triphosphate (d-ATP), leading to build up and lymphotoxicity

<p>deoxyadenosine triphosphate (d-ATP), leading to build up and lymphotoxicity</p>
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57

What are the treatments available for SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency disease)?

Enzyme replacement thearpy,

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58

For SCID what is the drug product for enzyme replacement therapy?

eleapega

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59

What is Gaucher’s disease?

deficient glucocerebrosidase activity leading to the accumulation of certain fatty substances (glucocerebrosides)

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60

What are the treatment options for Gaucher’s disease?

  1. imiglucerase (Cerezym)

  2. velaglucerase alfa (Vpriv)

Both based on B-glucuronidase

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61

Imiglucerase (Cerezym) has a shorter or longer half life than Velagluceraase alfa (Vpriv)?

Imiglucerase (Cerezym) has a shorter half life (3.6 - 10.4 min) than Velagluceraase alfa (Vpriv) (11-12 min)

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62

What is L-asparaginase used for?

L-asparaginase is an oncolytic enzyme used for the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia

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63

What is the mechanism of action of L-asparaginase in leukemic cells?

L-asparaginase hydrolyzes L-asparagine to ammonia and L-aspartic acid/aspartate, leading to the depletion of asparagine and tumor growth is inhibited

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64

What are the three different biologics of L-Asparginase?

  1. Asparaginase (Erwinia [Recombinant]) (Rylaze)

  2. Pegaspargase (Oncaspar)

  3. Calaspargase Pegol (Asparlas)

(Rile up On my AS(p))

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65

What is the biologic pegaspargase (Oncaspar) conjugated with?

monomethoxypolyethylene

(M-M-P-E)

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66

Calaspargase Pegol (Asparlas) has a structure of L-asparaginase and monomethoxypolyethylene glycol (mPEG) linked via…?

a succinimidyl carbonate linker (mPREG… suck-on-my-dicc)

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67

What is rhDNase I used for?

treatment of cystic fibrosis

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68

What biologic is a form of rhDNase I?

Dornase Alfa (Pulmozyme)

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69

What is the typical concentration of dornase alfa (pulmozyme)?

2500 U/2.5 mL

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70


What are oligonucleotides?

short chains of single stranded or double stranded ribo- or deoxyribonucleotides

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71


What do oligonucleotides bind to?

chromosomal DNA, mRNA, or non-coding RNA (ncRNA)

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72

What do oligonucleotides modulate, and via what process?

gene expression through Watson-Crick base pairing w/ targeted nucleic acids

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73

What micro/macromolecules are included under the umbrella term, oligonucleotides?

antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs), small interfering RNA (siRNAs), microRNA (miRNAs), aptamers, and DNAzymes

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74

Oligonucleotides are very ____ molecules

potent

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75

MOA of oligonucleotides

direct binding to non-nucleic acids and interfere with gene expression

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76

What are the translation inhibiting oligonucleotides?

antisense oligonucleotides, ribozyme DNAzyme, small interfering RNA

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77

What is the MOA of antisense oligonucleotides?

binds to mRNA, blocking it from ribosomal RNA for translation

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78

What is the MOA of ribozyme/DNAzyme?

bind to mRNA and break it down

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79

What is the MOA of small interfering RNA?

bind to mRNA and RISC protein recognizes the mRNA outside of the nucleus and breaks it down

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80

What is the BBW with mipomersen (Kynamro)?

risk of hepatotoxicity (for a pt to get it, they need to go through strict program called Kynamro REMS)

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81

How is mipomersen (Kynamro) administered? stored?

SUBQ, refrigerated

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82

What is the indication of nusinersen (Spinraza)?

treatment of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)

(SPINraza = SPINal)

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83

What are concerning adverse effects with nusinersen (Spinraza)?

Hematologic effects (coagulation abnormalities and thrombocytopenia) and renal toxicity (potentially fatal glomerulonephritis)

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84

Which biologics are antisense?

mipomersen (Kynamro), nusinersen (Spinraza), and inotersen (Tegsedi)

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85

Which biopharmaceuticals are anti-transthyretin small interfering ribonucleic acid (siRNA) agents?

patisiran (Onpattro), vutrisiran (amvuttra) (both for polyneuropathy of hereditary transthyretin-mediated amyloidosis in adults)

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86

What are the concerns with patisiran (Onpattro) and Vutrisiran (Amvuttra)?

reduced vitamin A levels, IV infusion-related (patisiran only)

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87

What is the antilipemic siRNA agent?

Inclisiran (Leqvio)

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88

What are concerns with inclisiran (3)?

  1. UTI like blood in urin, burning/pain, feeling need to pass urine often or right away, fever, lower stomach/pelvic pain

  2. SoB

  3. allergic rxn

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89

What is the aminoevulinate synthase 1-directed siRNA agent?

givosiran (Givlaari)

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90

What are concerns with givosiran (5)?

  1. anaphylaxis

  2. hepatic toxicity

  3. increases in blood homocysteine levels

  4. injection-site rxns

  5. renal toxicity

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91

What is CRISPR/Cas9 made up of?

TWO key molecules: Cas9 enzyme, piece of RNA called guide RNA (gRNA)

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92

Which biologics are the Antisense-Mediated Epson Skipping Oligonucleotides?

Casimersen (Amondys 45), eteplirsen (Exondys 51), Golodirsen (Vyondys 53), and vitolarsen (Viltepso)

(used in transcript repair)

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93

What are the antisense-mediated epson skipping oligonucleotides indicated for?

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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94

What are the specific concerns with casimersen (Amondys 45)?

renal clearance is reduced in non-Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) pts w/ renal impairment

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95

What are the specific concerns with eteplirsen (Exondys 51)?

hypersensitivity reactions

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96

What are the specific concerns with Golodirsen (Vyondys 53)?

hypersensitivity reactions, kidney toxicity, including potentially fatal glomerulonephritis

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