CRAT test 1-5

10/T5

Which of the following might be considered predisposing factors for junctional rhythms?

1. Diabetes mellitus

2. Lupus erythematosus

3. Liver failure

4. All of the above

All of above

• Diabetes

  • SA node fails due to nerve or blood vessel damaged.

• Lupus erythematosus

  • Lupus myocarditis

• Liver Failure

  • Bile Acid Toxicity

11/T5

With an EKG, the voltage may be considered which of the following?

1. Deflected

2. Indirect

3. Negative

4. Posterior

Negative

X deflected(歪める、反らせる): it describes the physical movement of the wave line on the paper, not the voltage type itself.

15/T5

Alternating current interference can be caused by all of the following except?

1. Crossed lead wires

2. Improper grounding

3. Too little electrode gel

4. Other electrical equipment

Too little electrode gel

• “all of the following except”

• Alternating Current Interference = AC interference

19/T5

The major therapeutic goal in treating atrial fibrillation is which of the following?

1. Stop the erratic atrial impulses

2. Reduce ventricular rate below 80 bpm

3. Increase ventricular rate above 80 bpm

4. Reduce atrial impulse to below 100 bpm

Reduce Ventricular rate below 80 bpm

28/T5

A pacemaker stimulation of the atria and then the lower portion of the right ventricle in a sequence is known as which of the following?

1. Atriobiventricular pacing

2. Inherent rhythm

3. Pacing spike

4. Atrioventricular sequential pacing

Atrioventricular sequential pacing

=AV Synchronous Pacing

=Dual-Chamber Pacing

DDD (Dual-chamber paced, sensed, response) is the most common and versatile mode used for this purpose.

32/T5

Which of the following pacemaker complications leads to competition between the intrinsic electronic pacemakers?

1. Malsensing

2. Loss of capture

3. Undersensing

4. Oversensing

Undersensing

Undersensing:

Intrinsic beats occur,

The pacer misfires,

The mis-timed pacing spike accidentally lands on the T wave

=> R-on-T phenomenon

34/T5

Which of the following is similar to lead V1 on the 12 lead ECG?

1. MCL1

2. aVF

3. MCL6

4. aVR

MCL1

36/T5

Which of the following would be considered one of the grievance categories?

1. Expedited

2. Over extended

3. Irregular

4. Obtuse

Expedite

• The Grievance Categories

  • Standard

  • Extended

  • Expedite (most serious urgent case)

37/T5

If sinus arrhythmia suddenly develops in patients taking which of the following medications, the practitioner should be notified immediately?

1. Morphine sulfate

2. Aspirin

3. Digoxin

4. Lithium

Digoxin

Because of the narrow therapeutic index

Digoxin is used for Afib, Aflutter, and CHF.

39/T5

Atrial tachycardia can occur in patients with normal hearts and is generally related to which of the following?

1. Excessive exercise

2. Excessive use of alcohol

3. Excessive use of stimulants

4. Excessive insomnia

Excessive use of stimulants

Because stimulants are the direct effect on heart cellular mechanisms, especially in a normal heart.

41/T5

Which pacemaker malfunction causes the device to deliver a pacing stimulus during the heart’s relaxation (repolarization) phase, risking induction of dangerous arrhythmia?

1. Loss of capture

2. Undersensing

3. Oversensing

4. Battery depletion causing reduced device output

Undersensing

45/T5

The patient has spontaneous atrial activity leading the VVI pacemaker to not synchronize the ventricular activity with it. What can develop?

1. Myocardial infarction

2. Asystole

3. Bradycardia

4. Tricuspid regurgitation

Tricuspid regurgitation

=leaky heart valve condition, blood flow backward every beat.

50/T5

The stages of the cardiac cycle consists of all but which of the following?

1. Ventricular ejection

2. Ventricular systole

3. Atrial systole

4. Ventricular filling

Ventricular systole

1. Atrial Systole

2. Isovolumetric Contraction

3. Ventricular Ejection

4. Isovolumetric Relaxation

5. Ventricular Filling

54/T5

If there is waveform interference on an EKG, which of the following might be seen?

1. Bumpy pattern

2. Straight lines

3. No extra wave

4. None of the above

Bumpy pattern

“interference”

59/T5

On a standard ECG, a flattened baseline with missing or numerous erratic P wave most likely indicates which rhythm?

1. Atrial fibrillation

2. Multifocal atrial tachycardia

3. Ventricular flutter

4. Hyperkalemia

Atrial fibrillation

“missing or numerous erratic P wave”

61/T5

In a 12 lead ECG, which of the following is the number of limb leads there are?

1. 7

2. 6

3. 5

4. 3

6

Limb leads: I, II, III, aVR, aVL, aVF

63/T5

The right and left coronary arteries begin as a single branch off the ascending aorta from the area known as which of the following?

1. His Bundle

2. The triangle of Einthoven’s

3. The cardiac triangle

4. Sinuses of Valsalva

Sinuses of Valsalva

= at just above the aortic valve,

= three aortic sinuses,

= ensuring the openings into the coronary arteries are not obstructed by the open aortic valve

68/T5

Complication from failure to capture could include all of the following except?

1. Increased stimulation threshold because of such things as medications and/or electrolyte imbalance.

2. A fracture of the pacing lead wire

3. Liver failure

4. Perforation of the myocardium by a lead wire

Liver failure

“except”

79/T5

The ability of the heart muscle to contract after it receives the electrical impulse is which of the following?

1. Contractility

2. Excitability

3. Elasticity

4. conductivity

Contractility

• Excitability

  • The electrical response

  • “Flipping light switch”

  • The cell generates an action potential when stimulated.

• Contractility

  • The mechanical response

  • “The bulb ligting up“

  • The cell turns the electrical excitement into physical force.

  • a

80/T5

During which phase of the cardiac cycle do the aortic and pulmonic valves open to allow the ventricles to expel blood?

1. Isovolumetric ventricular depolarization

2. Ventricular filling

3. Atrial systole

4. Ventricular ejection

Ventricular ejection

“expel blood” and “ejection“

P=Atrial Contraction

QRS=Isovolumetric Contraction

ST segment=Ventricular Ejection

T=Isovolumetric Relaxation

TP segment=Ventricular Filling

82/T5

Which of the following is not one of the causes of temporary atrioventricular blocks?

1. Myocardial infarction

2. Cardiomyopathy

3. Acute myocarditis

4. Cardiac Surgery

Cardiomyopathy

Cardiomyopathy = Conditions of heart muscle can’t pump. Myocardium gets stiffen, enlarge, thicken.

Cause of AV block

• Myocardial Infarction

• Acute myocarditis

  • Cardiac Surgery

85/T5

Purkinje fibers end in minuscule filaments that directly depolarize which of the following?

1. Endocardium

2. Ventricular myocytes

3. Bundle branches

4. Epicardium

Ventricular myocytes

89/T5

Of the following, which would not be indicative of ventricular fibrillation?

1. No waves will be seen

2. Waves would be seen with every other complex

3. The QRS will be more than 120 ms

4. The rate will be 100-250

Waves would be seen with every other complex

“would not“

〇 No waves

〇 QRS is >0.12

〇 HR 100-250

94/T5

Of the following, which would not be considered potential causes of cardiac arrhythmias?

1. Injuries

2. Heart disease

3. Elevated glucose

4. Electrolyte imbalances

Elevated glucose

7/T1

All but which of the following symptoms might accompany chest pain?

1. Nausea/vomiting

2. Abdominal pain

3. Dizziness

4. Sweating

Abdominal Pain

6/T1

When ECG technician is making entries in the patient’s medical records regarding their ECG, which of the following would not be included?

1. The patient’s medical history

2. The identification of the patient

3. Diagnostic test result

4. The height and weight of the patient

The height and weight of the patient

8/T1

High-voltage artifact potentials are generally interpreted by the monitor as QRS complexes and activate the high-rate alarm in a monitoring problem known as which of the following?

1. Muscle tremor alarm

2. False high-rate alarm

3. Telemetry-related interference

4. False low-rate alarm

False high-rate alarm

11/T1

Which artifact filter setting is commonly used to reduce artifact due to muscle tremor and slight patient movement?

1. 40 Hz

2. 60 Hz

3. 80 Hz

4. 100 Hz

40 Hz

13/T1

An accurate word that the technician can use in place of electrodes to keep from instilling fear in the adult patient would be which of the following?

1. Plug

2. Stickers

3. Sensors

4. Recorders

Sensors

17/T1

When a compensatory pause does not occur, the premature ventricular contraction is called which of the following?

1. Uniform

2. Diminished

3. Interpolated

4. Aberrant

Interpolated

Reason 1. The ectopic impulse is generated and clears out quickly enough that the heart's natural pacemaker (the SA node) isn't reset.

Reason 2 The electrical signal travels in a way that allows the next normal sinus beat to arrive exactly on time

20/T1

Which of the following is the weight of the human heart?

1. 6-11 oz

2. 8-12 oz

3. 10-15 oz

4. 12-17 oz

8-12 oz

23/T1

If a EKG is ordered STAT, when should it be performed?

1. in 6 hours

2. In the morning

3. In 2 hours

4. ASAP

ASAP

Which of the following is represented in the above rhythm strip?

1. Sinus tachycardia

2. Atrial tachycardia

3. Ventricular tachycardia

4. Asystole

Sinus tachycardia

Atrial tachycardia usually presents with

1. Abnormal P wave: often the morphology of the p wave differs from that seen in sinus rhythm

2. Irregular or regular rhythm: Depending on the mechanism, the rhythm can be either regular or irregular

3. Variable PR interval: The PR interval may vary and is not necessarily normal

27/T1

Atrial tachycardia is characterized by which of the following?

1. Extended QRS complex

2. Three or more successive ectopic atrial beats at a rate of >100 bpm

3. Normal sinus P wave

4. Three or more successive ectopic atrial beats at a rate of 250 to 300 bpm

Three or more successive ectopic atrial beats at a rate of >100 bpm

29/T1

As a result of bradycardia, which of the following tends to diminish?

1. Vagal stimulation

2. Automaticity

3. Metabolic demands

4. Oxygenation

Automaticity

33/T1

Which of the following acts as an safety mechanism to protect the heart from ventricular standstill?

1. Premature ventricular contractions

2. Idioventricular rhythm

3. Torsades de pointe

4. Asystole

Idioventricular rhythm

38/T1

A maneuver to purposely activate the baroreceptors in the carotid arteries to slow a rapid heart rate is known as which of the following?

1. Carotid sinus massage

2. Carotid sinus activation

3. Carotid receptor massage

4. Carotid receptor activation

Carotid Sinus massage

36/T1

Telemetry cardiac monitoring is generally employed in which of the following units?

1. Rehabilitation

2. Medical-Surgical

3. Emergency

4. Intensive care

Medical-surgical

41/T1

ECG lead II produces a positive deflection, and the positive electrode should be placed on which of the following?

1. Right leg

2. Left leg

3. Right arm

4. Left arm

Left leg

42/T1

How many different types of atrial tachycardia are there?

1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Three

1. Atrial Tachycardia with Block

   1. A specific heart rhythm where the upper heart chambers (atria) beat rapidly (150–250 bpm), but the AV node acts as a safety filter, preventing every electrical impulse from reaching the ventricles

2. Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia

3. Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia

43/T1

An arrhythmia that has a PR interval of less than 0.12 second originated where in the heart?

1. SA node

2. Atria

3. Ventricles

4. AV junction

AV junction

47/T1

In the Pacemaker codes, the first letter represents which of the following?

1. The heart chamber in which the pacemaker senses the intrinsic activity

2. The pacemakers response to the intrinsic electrical activity it senses in the atrium or ventricle

3. The heart chamber being paced

4. Rate modulation

The heart chamber being paced

52/T1

The typical dosage of Atropine that is administered to the patient that is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia would be considered which of the following?

1. 0.01 mg

2. 0.5 mg

3. 10mg

4. 5 g

0.5 mg

53/T1

The space which is between the lungs that contain the heart would be considered the ____?

1. Myocardium

2. Epicardium

3. Mediastinum

4. Pericardium

Mediastinum

56/T1

Which of the following is not one of the common causes of junctional escape?

1. Vagal stimulation

2. Sick sinus syndrome

3. Digoxin toxicity

4. Stroke

Stroke

• Common causes of junctional rhythm

  • Sick sinus syndrome

  • Vagal stimulation

  • Electrolyte imbalances

  • Digoxin toxicity

  • MI

  • Rheumatic heart disease

58/T1

The T wave’s peak represents which of the following?

1. Relative refractory period of ventricular repolarization

2. End of ventricular depolarization

3. End of ventricular conduction

4. Presence of myocardial infarction or ischemia

Relative refractory period of ventricular repolarization

62/T1

If a P wave has an amplitude of> 2.5 mm in lead II or >1.5 mm in V1, which of the following may be indicated?

1. Left atrial enlargement

2. Retrograde atrial depolarization

3. Right atrial enlargement

4. Reverse or retrograde conduction

Right atrial enlargement

64/T1

When measuring ventricular regularity on a 12-lead ECG and R waves are absent or not clearly visible, which point is preferred for measuring successive ventricular cycles?

1. P wave peak (atrial depolarization)

2. Q wave onset (initial downward deflection of the QRS)

3. S wave nadir (deepest negative deflection of QRS)

4. J point (junction of the QRS complex and the ST segment)

S wave nadir

(deepest negative deflection of the QRS)

Q onset can be useful if it’s consistently sharp, but initial deflections may be slurred or variable;

S wave nadir is generally a more reproducible ventricular marker when R is absent

74/T1

Which of the following do atrial arrhythmias result from?

1. Impulses that originate outside the SA node

2. Impulses that originate from the SA node

3. Ventricular conditions

4. Atrial conditions

Impulses which originate outside the SA node

77/T1

Which of the following is mainly caused by an irritable spot or focus that happens outside of the SA node?

1. Sinus arrest

2. SA block

3. Sinus bradycardia

4. Premature atrial contractions

Premature atrial contractions

PAC usually caused by an irritable spot.

79/T1

When determining the patient’s heart rate when evaluating a cardiac rhythm strip, if the rhythm is regular, the technician counts the number of large boxes in an RR interval and then divides that number into 300. Which of the following rules would this be considered?

1. Rule of 30 seconds

2. Rule of 300

3. Rule of 3000'

4. No rule

Rule of 300

80/T1

Abnormal waves on an electrocardiogram might include all of the following except?

1. Osborn waves

2. PRI

3. Delta wave

4. Epsilon waves

PRI

85/T1

Is the sequence method of calculating atrial rate, the technician must memorize a series of numbers to assign to which of the following?

1. P waves that peak on heavy black lines

2. P waves that peak below heavy black lines

3. The heavy black lines between P waves

4. The light black lines between P waves

The heavy black lines between P waves

86/T1

Two sets of chemicals in the sympathetic nervous system that are highly influenced by this system include which of the following?

1. Acetylcholine and baroreceptors

2. Norepinephrine and epinephrine

3. Calcium and potassium

4. Sodium and calcium

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

(naw-reh-puh-NEH-fruhn)

• Primary chemicals driving the sympathetic nervous system and the acute “fight-or-flight” stress response.

90/T1

During repolarization, which of the following ventricular myocytes charges must recover in order to be depolarized again?

1. Resting positive charge

2. Active negative charge

3. Resting negative charge

4. Active positive charge

Resting negative charge

93/T1

Saying words correctly would be considered ____ and speaking clearly would be considered ____?

1. Pronunciation / enunciation

2. Enunciation / pronunciation

3. Enunciation / formally

4. Speaking / enunciation

Pronunciation / Enunciation

A requisition for an ECG procedure must include the reason for the exam and all of the following except?

1. Patient identification information

2. Patient vital signs

3. Patient medications

4. Patient weight and height

Patient weight and height

98/T1

Of the following, which would be considered the appropriate term for an individual that helps the patient seek information and resources?

1. Nurse aide

2. Nurse practitioner

3. Nurse manager

4. Patient advocate

Patient advocate

1/T2

A straight line resembling asystole on the monitor is generally caused by which of the following?

1. Loose electrode

2. Loss of rhythm

3. Patient movement

4. Electrical interference

Loose electrode

4/T2

Predisposing factors for the development of PVC’s should include al of the following except?

1. Normal potassium and magnesium

2. Hypokalemia

3. Digoxin toxicity

4. Caffeine

Normal potassium and magnesium

6/T2

In regards to the Glasgow coma scoring system, if the patient opens their eyes to pain, is confused, and move to localized pain, which of the following would be considered the correct score?

1. 6

2. 15

3. 11

4. 12

11

7/T2

Communication is not only verbal, the healthcare provider also communicates through all of the following except?

1. Facial expressions

2. Visulally

3. Tone of voice

4. Silence

Visually

11/T2

Which of the following is commonly triggered by ineffective contact between the patient’s skin and the electrode-leadwire system?

1. False low-rate alarm

2. Muscle tremors

3. False high-rate alarm

4. Telemetry monitoring

False alarm high-rate alarm

12/T2

If an impulse from outside pathway other than the bundle of His causes depolarization of the ventricles, it can cause which of the following?

1. Junctional tachycardia

2. Accelerated junctional rhythm

3. Ventricular arrhythmias

4. Junctional arrhythmias

Ventricular arrhythmia

14/T2

Of the following, which would not be considered a resource option for patient education?

1. Video

2. Group classes

3. Watching another patient have the procedure

4. Podcasts

Watching another patient have the procedure

15/T2

Which of the following is common cause of Wandering Atrial Pacemaker?

1. Increased Vagal Tone

2. Digoxin toxicity

3. Diabetes mellitus

4. Lupus erythematosus

Increased vagal tone

(e.x., during sleep, in athletes, with pulmonary disease)

16/T2

Simply stretching the outer layer of the skin can produce which of the following?

1. Large baseline shifts

2. Electrical signals

3. Asystole

4. Tachycardia

Electrical signals

20/T2

Which of the following can cause the atria and ventricles to beat out of sync due to longer-than-normal conduction?

1. Retrograde conduction

2. Re-entry events

3. Compensatory beat

4. Ectopy

Retrograde conduction

Retrograde conduction (VentriculoAtrial conduction)：backward electrical direction of travel

• The backward movement of electrical signals in the heart, traveling from the ventricles or the node back up into the atria.

• This triggers inverted retrograde P waves on an ECG and can lead to arrhythmias like pacemaker-medicated tachycardia.

• Retrograde conduction is a feature of a junctional rhythm

21/T2

In left bundle branch block the QRS complex is greater than 012 second because the ventricles are activated in which of the following ways?

1. Simltaneously

2. Sequentially

3. Spontaneously

4. Segmentally

Sequentially

Right ventricle first, then the left

25/T2

Sick sinus syndrome’s prognosis is considered worse if atrial fibrillation occurs due to the possibility of which of the following?

1. Thromboembolic complications

2. Prolonged pauses

3. Syncope

4. Sinus arrest

Thromboembolic complications

SSSS > A fib > Clots

29/T2

Which of the following shows the electrical changes in a myocardial cell during the depolarization-repolarization cycle?

1. Conduction system

2. Impulse pathway

3. Action potential curve

4. Myocardial change chart

Action potential curve

Action Potential Curve: A graph illustrating the rapid changes in voltage across a cell membrane over time.

33/T2

AAI pacemaker s are not used in which of the following conditions?

1. Sinus bradycardia

2. Atrial standstill

3. AV block

4. Sick sinus syndrome

34/T2

On a rhythm strip, a ventricular arrhythmia will be missing which of the following?

1. P wave

2. Q wave

3. R wave

4. S wave

P wave

35/T2

An electronic record of a patient’s health information that is created and maintained by a single healthcare provider or organization and is used for care during one or more encounters is best described as which of the following?

1. Electronic medical record

2. Electronic health record

3. Personal health record

4. Health information exchange

Electronic Medical Record

37/T2

Which type of sinoatrial block involves a regular rhythm with pauses until a whole PQRST complex is blocked?

1. First degree

2. Second degree type I

3. Second degree type II

4. Third degree

Second degree type II

39/T2

Which type of lead wire should be attached prior to the electrode being placed on the patient’s chest?

1. Clip-on

2. Contact

3. Snap-on

4. Twist-on

Snap-on

43/T2

Which of the following is the most common cause of junctional tachycardia?

1. Congenital disease in children

2. Posterior or inferior wall myocardial infarction or ischemia

3. Digoxin toxicity

4. Swelling of the AV junction following heart surgery

Digoxin Toxicity

44/T2

Which of the following is not a condition that can disrupt electrolyte shifts?

1. Metabolic acidosis

2. Hypoxia

3. Myocarditis

4. Depressant drug intoxication

Depressant drug intoxication

1. Metabolic acidosis >acid buildup

2. Hypoxia >acid-base disturbance

3. Myocarditis >inflammation of muscle alter electrolytes management

38/T2

Which of the following is NOT a cause of temporary AV block?

1. Cardiomyopathy

2. Myocardial infarction

3. Cardiac surgery

4. Calcium channel blockers

Cardiomyopathy

• Cause of AV block

  • Digoxin

  • Myocardial Infarction

  • Cardiac surgery

  • Calcium channel blockers

46/T2

Which of the following is NOT a cause of permanent AV block?

1. Congenital abnormalities

2. Digoxin toxicity

3. Myocardial Infarction

4. Cardiomyopathy

Digoxin toxicity

51/T2

The NB should only be employed when absolutely necessary for which of the following reasons?

1. It requires patient movement during the exam

2. The filter reduces interference

3. The filter will distort the ECG reading

4. The filter increases interference

The filter will distort the ECG reading

distort=alter contaminate

The option "the filter reduces interference" is incorrect because it describes what the filter does, not the reason to restrict its use.

78/T2

During diastole, when the ventricles relax, it allows for which of the following to occur?

1. Pushes blood out of the ventricles

2. Pushes the blood out of the superior vena cava

3. Allows the atria to create space for receiving more blood

4. None of the above

Allows to the atria to create space for receiving more blood

81/T2

Which of the following is not typically one of the cause of ventricular fibrillation?

1. Myocardial infarction

2. Angina

3. Myocardial ischemia

4. Underlying heart disease

Angina

84/T2

In the QRS complex, which of the following is represented by the S wave?

1. Conduction of the electrical impulse through both ventricles

2. Conduction of the electrical impulse down the interventricular septum

3. Conduction of the electrical impulse to the left ventricle

4. The end of ventricular depolarization and the beginning of ventricular repolarization

Conduction of the electrical impulse through both ventricles

• Q wave: interventricular septum.

• R wave: Ventricular apex and large main walls

• S wave: Basal regions of both ventricles

90/T2

The intrinsic firing rate of the Bundle of His would be considered which of the following?

1. 70-85 bpm

2. 40-60 bpm

3. 60-80 bpm

4. 20-45 bpm

40-60 bpm

• 60-80 bpm = SA node

• 40-60 bpm = AV node & Bundle of His

  • 20-40 bpm = Purkinje Fibers

98/T2

When the technologist tells the patient the details in the form of what will happen, when, and why it is being done, it is considered which of the following types of teaching?

1. Factual

2. Compliant

3. Necessary

4. Nondescriptive

Factural

4/T3

If a patient is experiencing sinus bradycardia and is symptomatic, which of the following would this rhythm not be the cause of?

1. Chest pain

2. Shortness of breath

3. Diarrhea

4. Hypotension

Diarrhea

symptoms NOT caused by Sinus Brady

5/T3

Which of the following will cause the baseline to have an uneven, coarsely jagged appearance that obscures the waveforms on the ECG?

1. Telemetry monitoring

2. Wandering baseline

3. Electrical interference

4. Muscle tremors

Muscle tremors

(somatic tremors)

coarsely jagged(粗くギザギザした)

obscures （不明瞭な）

6/T3

Of the following, which would not be considered a potential cause for a patient to experience breathlessness?

1. Severe pulmonary edema

2. Cardiac arrhythmias

3. Osteoporosis

4. Pericarditis

Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis: a condition that cause bones to become weak and brittle

11/T3

Which of the following would be considered concurrent with the end of ventricular systole?

1. T wave

2. R wave

3. Q wave

4. S wave

T wave

QRS is V-depolarization (signal to contract)

Mechanical functions=Ventricular systole

The end of ventricular systole coincides with the beginning of ventricular repolarization, which is marked by the T wave.

Thus, the T wave occurs concurrently(同時に) with the end of ventricular systole.

14/T3

Which of the following controls increases or decreases the size of the EKG tracing on the rhythm paper?

1. LCD display

2. Standardization

3. Speed

4. Gain

Gain.

It’s about height

20/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

What is unique about the T wave on a rhythm strip with ventricular tachycardia?

1. Missing from the waveform

2. Inverted from normal

3. Opposite direction from QRS complex

4. Nothing

Opposite direction from QRS complex

21/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Vagal maneuvers and medications, such as which of the following, can be employed to slow the heart rate in symptomatic junctional tachycardia patients?

1. Adenosine

2. Amiodarone

3. Digoxin

4. Verapamil

Adenosine

22/T3

Rhythm strip (HR 200, Regular, No P)

1. Asystole

2. Atrial flutter

3. Atrial tachycardia

4. Atrial fibrillation

Atrial Tachycardia

It’s not A-flutter 1:1 because

1. Presence of P waves (with intervals)

2. HR is too slow. Atrial Tachycardia should be 100-250bpm. Aflutter 1:1 should be 250-350 bpm

3. They are not Flutter wave

It’s not A fib RVR, because

1. Regularity

2. presence of P wave (with interval)

have’s P wave, not flutter wave.

24/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

When sinus arrhythmia is related to respiration, there will be which of the following with inspiration?

1. Increase in heart rate

2. Decrease in heart rate

3. Regularity in heart rate

4. Pause in heart rate

Increase in heart rate

(inspiration=inhale » inhale increase heart rate)

26/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

The time between the end of depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles would be considered which of the following?

1. PR interval

2. QT interval

3. PP segment

4. ST segment

ST segment

27/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Sinus tachycardia can worsen myocardial ischemia by increasing the heart’s demand for which of the following?

1. Oxygen

2. Electrical impulse

3. Blood

4. Rest

Oxygen

1. Heart muscle works harder

2. More oxygen needed

   1. but can’t get it because HR too fast, so cell begin to die

28/T3

Third-degree AV block is most commonly classified as which of following?

1. Drug-induced (caused by medication)

2. Surgery-induced (resulting from surgery or procedural injury)

3. Congenital (Present at birth)

4. Acquired degenerative or disease-related (due to progressive conduction)

Acquired degenerative or disease-related

(They all can be cause)

30/T3

Premature Atrial Contractions are rarely dangerous but in a patient with which of the following conditions, they can serve as an early sign of heart failure or electrolyte imbalance?

1. Nonconductor premature atrial contractions

2. Hypoxia

3. Acute myocardial infarction

4. Pulmonary disease

Acute myocardial infarction

PAC on MI can trigger R-on-T phenomenon, lead to V tach.

On ECG, “Sinus rhythm with acute ST-elevation and frequent PAC”

33/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Asystole must be confirmed in more than one lead due to the fact that it closely resembles which of the following?

1. Fine ventricular fibirillation

2. Sinus pause

3. AV block

4. Artiact

Fine ventricular fibrillation

because its visual similarity to Asystole