AMT Airframe Written Test (FAA)

C- detection.

5 (9001) - Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of

B- Cockpit and/or cabin.

1 (8997) - In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?

B- A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically

2 (8998) - What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?

A- water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and halogenated hydrocarbons

3 (8999) - The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are

B- Green.

4 (9000) - When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?

B- photoelectrical devices.

6 (9002) - Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called

B- installing a new indicating element.

7 (9003) - A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by

C- Thermocouple.

8 (9004) - Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?

A- horn is nonmetallic.

9 (9005) - A carbon dioxide (CO(2)) hand-held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the

C- dry powder chemical.

10 (9006) - The proper fire-extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is

B- Photoelectric cell.

11 (9007) - Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument?

B- senses light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber

12 (9008) - Light refraction smoke detectors are activated when the detector

C- A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.

13 (9009) - Why does the Fenwal fire-detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits?

B- weighing the container and its contents.

14 (9010) - A fire-extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by

A- Brown.

15 (9011) - What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines?

C- dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections.

16 (9012) - The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous-loop fire-detection systems is

A- it generates a small current when heated.

17 (9013) - A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because

C- rate-of-temperature rise.

18 (9014) - The thermocouple fire-warning system is activated by a

A- parallel with each other and in series with the light.

19 (9015) - When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in

B- halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen

20 (9016) - Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with

B- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

21 (9017) - In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems,(1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted.(2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections.Regarding the above statements,

B- A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line.

22 (9018) - What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built-in fire-extinguisher system?

B- parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights.

23 (9019) - The thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal-switch type fire-detection (single-loop) system are heat-sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in

C- 45 to 73°F.

24 (9020) - (Refer to Figure 21.) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire-extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG. (Consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum pressure.)

A- 215 to 302 PSIG.

25 (9021) - (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the surrounding area temperature is 33°F. (Rounded to the nearest whole number.)

B- Replace the extinguisher container.

26 (9022) - On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed?

C- yellow disk on the side of the fuselage.

27 (9023) - In some fire-extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of a

B- used only on the original discharge valve assembly.

28 (9024) - If a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve, it should be

C- 1, 2, 3, and 4.

29 (9025) - Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system?1. Display 'No Smoking' placards2. Provide adequate fire-fighting equipment.3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease.4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.

B- Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).

30 (9026) - Which fire-extinguishing agent is considered to be the least toxic

C- replacement of damaged sensing elements.

31 (9027) - Maintenance of fire-detection systems includes the

B- device for causing the fire-extinguishing agent to be released.

32 (9028) - A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a

A- remove all paint from the area to be covered by the deicer boot.

1 (8969) - Prior to installation of a pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boots, on the leading edge of the wing, you should

C- 1, 2, 3, 5.

2 (8970) - Which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield system?1. Autotransformer.2. Heat control relay.3. Heat control toggle switch.4. 24V dc power supply.5. Indicating light.

A- Ammeter reading.

3 (8971) - What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?

C- Distributor valve.

4 (8972) - What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?

A- Vane-type pump.

5 (8973) - What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?

C- Suction relief valve.

6 (8974) - Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?

C- Soap and water.

7 (8975) - What may be used to clean deicer boots?

C- Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur.

8 (8976) - Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti-ice system usually operated during flight?

B- Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vacuum gauge.

9 (8977) - Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system?

A- Thermo-cycling switches.

10 (8978) - What method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti-icing system using surface combustion heaters?

B- To sequence the deicer boots inflations symmetrically.

11 (8979) - What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots?

A- To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration.

12 (8980) - What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?

A- Imbedded in the glass.

13 (8981) - Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated windshields?

B- compressor bleed air and aircraft electrical system.

14 (8982) - Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing thermal anti-icing system are

B- Thermistors.

15 (8983) - What maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated windshield system?

C- conductive coating.

16 (8984) - Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the

C- Distributor valve.

17 (8985) - Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer boots when the system is not in operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight?

B- By breaking up ice formations.

18 (8986) - How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?

A- Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.

19 (8987) - Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?

A- Alcohol spray and heated induction air.

20 (8988) - Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?

B- It will restrict visibility.

21 (8989) - Why should a chemical rain repellant not be used on a dry windshield?

B- An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface.

22 (8990) - What is the principle characteristic of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system?

A- Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol.

23 (8991) - What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft surface?

A- A brush or a squeegee.

24 (8992) - Which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an aircraft?

A- 2, 3, 5.

25 (8993) - What are three methods of anti-icing aircraft windshields?1. Blanket-type heating system.2. An electric heating element in the windshield.3. Heated air circulating system.4. Hot water system.5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing fluid.6. Ribbon-type heating system.

C- Carburetor ice.

26 (8994) - What icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present?

C- Hot air.

27 (8995) - What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immobile because of ice?

B- Thermistor.

28 (8996) - What is used as a temperature-sensing element in an electrically heated windshield?

sense the deceleration rate of every main landing gear wheel and release then reapply pressure at a slightly lower value when a skid is detected.

An antiskid system is designed to

relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake

In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid control valve which

an electrohydraulic system.

An antiskid system is

a switch in the cockpit.

Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by

Elevators, speed brake, flaps, and stabilizer trim.

A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition to throttle setting, monitors the position of which of the following?

a thrust lever.

The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by

only No. 1 is true.

1) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and static air pressures surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight. 2) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and cabin air pressures at any Regarding the above statements,moment of flight.

is not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.

The angle-of-attack detector operates from differential pressure when the airstream

both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

1) When an airplane is slowed below approximately 20 MPH, the antiskid system automatically deactivates to give the pilot full control of the brakes for maneuvering and parking. 2) An antiskid system consists basically of three components; wheel speed sensors, control box, and Regarding the above statements,control valves.

an electrical sensor

In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by

- Normal skid control.

- Fail safe protection

- Locked wheel skid control

- Touchdown protection

Which of the following functions does a skid control system perform?

When wheel rotation deceleration indicates an impending skid.

At what point in the landing operation does normal skid control perform its function?

both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

1) An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid point. 2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system failure.Regarding the above statements,

trim position.

When an airplane's primary flight control surfaces are set for a particular phase of flight, such as landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface indicating system will show

negative air pressure.

The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some light aircraft is activated by

is imminent.

Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall

extinguished.

(Refer to Figure 19.) What is the indication of the red landing gear position light under the following conditions?Aircraft on jacks.Landing gear in transit.Warning horn sounding

Replace electrical wire No. 12

(Refer to Figure 19). Which repair should be made if the gear switch was placed in UP position and the gear does not retract?

Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to sound?

Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches.

(Refer to Figure 20.) What will illuminate the amber indicator light?

Any gear not down and locked, and one throttle retarded.

(Refer to Figure 20.) What is the minimum circumstance that will cause the landing gear warning horn to indicate an unsafe condition?

On the main gear shock strut.

Where is the landing gear safety switch usually located?

Ground safety switch.

What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?

Gear downlock microswitch

Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?

Red light for unsafe gear; green light for gear down; no light for gear up

Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications?

sequence valves.

In most modern hydraulically actuated landing gear systems, the order of gear and fairing door operation is controlled by

A horn or other aural device and a red warning light

What landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft?

Antiskid system.

When a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut closes at liftoff, which system is deactivated?

an electromagnet.

The rotor in an autosyn remote indicating system uses

rotor.

The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn indicating system is the

a permanent magnet.

The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating system uses

control electrical units automatically

Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to

- Indicates position of retractable landing gear.

- Indicates cowl flaps or oil cooler door position.

- Indicates fuel quantity.

- Indicates position of wing flaps.

Which of the following are some uses for a DC-selsyn system?

both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

(1) A DC-selsyn system is a widely used electrical method of indicating a remote mechanical movement or position.(2) A synchro-type indicating system is an electrical system used for transmitting information from one point to another.Regarding the above statements,

Squat switch is open

In the air with the anti-skid armed, current cannot flow to the antiskid control box because landing gear?

C-motor can be operated in either direction.

8803. Some electric motors have two sets of fluid windings wound in opposite directions so that the

C-a short armature.

8804. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of

C-Ring.

8805. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type?

A-High starting torque.

8806. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound DC motor?

A-depends on the load carried by the generator.

8807. If a generator is equipped with a vibrator-type voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points remain open