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Naegleria
What facultative parasite may live off, for instance, eating fungi or bacteria?
Motile form of Toxoplasma gondii
What parasitic form may cross the placental barrier during pregnancy?
Schistosoma
What very important human parasite is an exception to hermaphroditic trematodes and is not a food-borne disease?
Embryonated egg
What is the infective stage of Ascaris?
Cercaria
What special kind of larva infects humans and eventually becomes metacercaria during development?
Metacercaria
What is the infective stage of flukes?
Rhabditiform
What is the feeding form of larvae?
Filariform
What is the aggressive form of larvae that is, in most cases, the infective stage of helminthes infecting humans?
Cysts
What is an infective stage of protozoans that does not have ova/eggs or larva?
Trophozoites
What is the infective stage of protozoans that also represents their feeding stage?
Entamoeba histolytica
What protozoan causes typical amoebiasis?
Cryptococcus neoformans
What fungi breeds in the feces of birds, with infection occurring via inhalation of contaminated soil particles?
Chitins and glucans
What two components compose the rigid cell wall of fungi?
Ergosterol
What chemical is contained within the cell membrane of fungi and is important when discussing pharmacology and antifungals?
Melanin
What pigment, when present in fungal cell walls, imparts a brown or black color to the fungal colony and protects fungi from host defenses?
Pseudopodium
What is the locomotory apparatus of Sarcodina, also known as "false feet" which are hyaline foot-like extrusions of ectoplasm?
Flagella
What is the locomotory apparatus used by Mastigophora?
Cilia
What is the locomotory apparatus used by Ciliophora, described as very small, fine, and hairy?
Conoid (feeding tube)
What collection of organelles and secretory structures helps Apicomplexa infect the host cell, and is present in Coccidia but absent in Hemosporidia?
Plasmodium
What protozoan is the best prototype member of Hemosporidia, causes malarial disease, and has a very complicated life cycle?
Babesia
What protozoan technically belongs to the Piroplasmida order?
Diphyllobothrium
What cestode is known as the "fish tapeworm" and is the longest tapeworm parasite to infect man, belonging to the Pseudophyllidean order?
Occasional Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVC’s)
What are also called “skipped beats” or occasional arrhythmias, where more than 10 per minute is considered too frequent?
Anisocoria (less than 0.5mm pupillary inequality)
What pupillary inequality is considered benign upon normal pupillary reactions findings, and is visible in about 20% of normal people?
S1 heart sound
What heart sound is caused by the closure of the mitral valve, is softer than S2 at the base, and often, but not always, louder than S2 at the apex?
S2 heart sound
What heart sound is due to aortic valve closing, has two components (A2 and P2), with A2 being louder, and its splitting is noted in inspiration but fused in expiration?
S3 heart sound
What heart sound may be produced during rapid ventricular filling early in diastole in children and thin teenagers (physiologic), but indicates pathology in older adults (S3 gallop)?
S4 heart sound
What heart sound is often not heard and immediately precedes S1 of the next beat?
Mitral Stenosis
What condition involves the hardening of the leaflets of the mitral valve?
Mitral Regurgitation
What condition occurs when blood, instead of fully transferring to the ventricle, goes back to the atrium?
Flow murmurs
What type of heart murmurs are distinguishable by their longer duration, attributed to turbulent blood flow, and may be “innocent” in young adults?
Pruritus ani
What specific symptom is associated with pinworms?
Neutrophils
What predominant inflammatory cells have multilobed nuclei, contain fine granules, are responsible for phagocytosing the cause of injury, and are the most numerous white blood cells in the circulation?
Monocytes
What circulating white blood cells differentiate into macrophages upon entering tissues, survive longer than neutrophils, and become the dominant population in chronic inflammatory reactions?
Macrophages
What tissue phagocytes play an important role in the inflammatory response, are derived from blood monocytes, recognize microbial products, secrete most cytokines important in acute inflammation, and can engulf unwanted material?
Basophils
What circulating white blood cells are referred to as mast cells when they are in the tissue?
Mast cells
What cells release histamine, leukotrienes, enzymes, and cytokines (TNF, IL-1, chemokines), and are the main drivers of allergic reactions?
Histamine
What chemical mediator is produced or secreted by mast cells, basophils, and platelets, causes dilation of arterioles and increases the permeability of venules, and is the principal mediator of the immediate transient phase of increased vascular permeability?
Nitric Oxide (NO)
What endothelium-derived relaxing factor causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation, reduces leukocyte and platelet adhesion, and reacts with superoxide to generate peroxynitrite?
Plasma proteins
What fluid components of the blood include antibodies and other chemical mediators of inflammation, and can leak into the extravascular space during inflammation causing edema?
Antibodies
What plasma proteins are an example of chemical mediators of inflammation and also serve as opsonins?
C3a and C5a (Anaphylatoxins)
What complement proteins stimulate histamine release from mast cells and are also endogenous chemoattractants?
Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
What receptors can detect bacteria, viruses, and fungi, and are found on leukocytes to recognize microbial products?
Hypoxia-inducible factor-1α (HIF-1α) protein
What protein is produced by cells deprived of oxygen and activates the transcription of genes involved in inflammation, such as vascular endothelial growth factor?
Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
What growth factor increases vascular permeability and seems to promote vascular leakage by increasing the number and size of channels involved in transcytosis?
Cytokines
What chemical mediators of inflammation are produced by T-lymphocytes and other immune cells, and can stimulate the release of other mediators?
TNF (Tumor Necrosis Factor)
What cytokine induces endothelial expression of ligands for integrins and, along with IL-1, induces early release of granulocytes from marrow?
IL-1 (Interleukin-1)
What cytokine induces endothelial expression of ligands for integrins and, along with TNF, induces early release of granulocytes from marrow?
Chemokines
What mediators regulate the expression of selectins and their ligands, bind to and activate rolling leukocytes, and act as chemoattractants to stimulate cell migration?
Selectins
What adhesion molecules mediate the initial rolling interactions of leukocytes?
Integrins
What adhesion molecules mediate the firm adhesion of leukocytes to the endothelium, including LFA-1, Mac-1 (β2 integrins), and VLA-4 (β1 integrin)?
VCAM-1 (Vascular Cell Adhesion Molecule 1)
What is the ligand for the VLA-4/β1 integrin?
ICAM-1 (Intercellular Cell Adhesion Molecule-1)
What is the ligand for the LFA-1 and Mac-1/β2 integrins?
PECAM-1 (Platelet Endothelial Cell Adhesion Molecule 1)
What adhesion molecules, found in the intercellular junctions between endothelial cells, are involved in leukocyte migration across the endothelium and vessel wall?
Collagenases
What enzymes are secreted by leukocytes to pierce the basement membrane and are present in the granules of neutrophils?
Elastases
What enzymes are present in the granules of neutrophils?
CD44
What molecule do leukocytes use, along with integrins, to adhere to the extracellular matrix?
Fucosyl transferase
A defect in what enzyme leads to the absence of Sialyl-Lewis X, causing Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency type 2?
Sialyl-Lewis X
What ligand for E- and P-selectins is absent in Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency type 2 due to a defect in fucosyl transferase?
Arachidonic acid
What lipid is released from membrane phospholipids by the action of cellular phospholipases, serving as a precursor for various inflammatory mediators?
Prostaglandins (PGD2, PGE2, PGH2)
What cyclooxygenase pathway metabolites cause vasodilation?
Prostacyclin (PGI2)
What cyclooxygenase pathway metabolite causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation?
Thromboxane A2
What cyclooxygenase pathway metabolite causes vasoconstriction and promotes platelet aggregation?
Leukotrienes (LTC4, LTD4, LTE4)
What lipoxygenase pathway metabolites are known as the slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis, causing vasoconstriction, bronchospasm, and increased vascular permeability?
Leukotriene B4
What lipoxygenase pathway metabolite is a chemotactic agent that promotes leukocyte adhesion?
5-HETE
What lipoxygenase pathway metabolite is a chemotactic agent?
Lipoxin A4 and Lipoxin B4
What lipoxygenase pathway metabolites are anti-inflammatory, functioning to inhibit neutrophil adhesion and chemotaxis?
Serotonin
What vasoactive amine is secreted by platelets and certain neuroendocrine cells, with its release stimulated by contact with collagen, thrombin, adenosine diphosphate, and antigen-antibody complexes?
NADPH oxidase
What enzyme activates the generation of Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) in leukocytes?
Superoxide anion (O2-)
What reactive oxygen species is produced by NADPH oxidase, converted to hydrogen peroxide, and is a microbicidal product?
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
What reactive oxygen species is converted from superoxide anion, and can be converted to hypochlorite by myeloperoxidase or to a hydroxyl radical?
Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
What enzyme, in the presence of a halide, converts H2O2 to hypochlorite, forming the most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils?
Halide (e.g., Cl-)
What ion is needed by myeloperoxidase to convert H2O2 to hypochlorite?
Hypochlorite (OCl●)
What potent antimicrobial agent and microbicidal product is formed when myeloperoxidase converts H2O2 in the presence of a halide?
Hydroxyl radical (●OH)
What powerful destructive agent and microbicidal product is derived from hydrogen peroxide?
Peroxynitrite (ONOO●)
What highly reactive free radical is generated when nitric oxide reacts with superoxide, and is a microbicidal product?
IgG antibodies
What type of antibody serves as an opsonin?
C3b complement proteins
What complement protein serves as an opsonin?
Mannan-binding lectin
What lectin serves as an opsonin?
Interferon-γ (IFN-γ)
What cytokine is secreted by natural killer cells and antigen-activated T lymphocytes, and is the major macrophage-activating cytokine?
Mycobacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites
What group of organisms are hard to eradicate and can cause persistent infections leading to chronic inflammation?
Endogenous cholesterols and other lipids
What endogenous substances accumulate in plaques, causing atherosclerosis?
Particulate Silica
What exogenous toxic agent, when inhaled into the lungs, cannot be eliminated and leads to silicosis (fibrosis or scarring of the lungs)?
Classical (M1) macrophages
What type of macrophage is activated by TLR ligands (e.g., bacterial endotoxins) and IFN-gamma, leads to further inflammation, destroys offending microbes, and produces NO and lysosomal enzymes?
Alternative (M2) macrophages
What type of macrophage is activated by IL-4 and IL-13, stops inflammation, induces tissue repair, and secretes Transforming Growth Factor-Beta (TGF-beta) and IL-10?
T-lymphocytes
What type of lymphocytes play a role in chronic inflammation, amplify and propagate chronic inflammation, are long-lived memory cells, and are involved in Chronic Granulomatous Inflammation?
B-lymphocytes
What type of lymphocytes, when activated, can differentiate into plasma cells and produce antibodies against pathogens, self-antigens, or altered tissue components?
Plasma cells
What rounded, mononuclear cells with abundant cytoplasm and eccentric nuclei are derived from B-cell lymphocytes, seen in chronic inflammation, and sometimes have a "cartwheel appearance"?
Eosinophils
What cells are usually present in reactions mediated by IgE and parasitic infections, and contain Major Basic Protein toxic to helminths?
Major Basic Protein
What protein, found in eosinophils, is toxic to helminths but can cause tissue damage?
IgE
What immunoglobulin mediates allergic reactions and, when binding to mast cells, causes degranulation and release of histamine and prostaglandins?
Prostaglandins (PGE2)
What chemical, produced by increased cyclooxygenase activity, induces the hypothalamus to produce neurotransmitters that elevate body temperature, thus driving fever?
NSAIDS
What class of drugs targets the cyclooxygenase enzyme to reduce fever?
C-reactive protein (CRP) and Serum amyloid A (SAA)
What two acute phase proteins are produced by the liver, indicate inflammatory processes, act as opsonins, and if prolonged in elevation, may lead to secondary amyloidosis?
Fibrinogen
What acute phase protein binds to red cells causing them to stack together in "rouleaux formation," and is the basis for the erythrocyte sedimentation rate laboratory test?
Hepcidin
What protein can cause anemia, and is an acute phase protein?
Thrombopoietin
What protein may be the cause of elevated platelets in inflammation?
Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
Increased production of what factors causes leukocytosis?
Band forms
What are the immature neutrophils seen in the blood during a "Left shift," indicating early release of granulocytes from marrow?
Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
What cytokine, secreted from Kupffer cells (liver macrophages), primes hepatocytes making them responsive to growth factors during liver regeneration?