MAR3023 – Exam 4 Comprehensive Review

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69 Q&A flashcards that cover key concepts from promotion mix and IMC through pricing, personal selling, and e-marketing to prepare for MAR3023 Exam 4.

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68 Terms

1
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What are the four main elements of the promotion mix?

Advertising, personal selling, public relations, and sales promotion.

2
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How is advertising defined in marketing communications?

A paid, non-personal communication about an organization and its products transmitted to a target audience through mass media.

3
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What is personal selling?

A paid, personal communication that seeks to inform and persuade customers to purchase products in an exchange situation.

4
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Define public relations (PR).

A broad set of communication efforts used to create and maintain favorable relationships between an organization and its stakeholders.

5
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What is a sales promotion?

Any activity or material that offers added value or an incentive to resellers, salespeople, or customers—e.g., coupons, contests, rebates, or free samples.

6
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What is the core logic of an Integrated Marketing Communication (IMC) plan?

Coordinating all promotion and marketing efforts for maximum impact on the target audience.

7
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Name the four IMC coordination goals often called the “4 C’s.”

Consistent message, Coordinated tools, Complementary synergy, and Continuity over time.

8
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What is a push promotion strategy?

A B2B approach in which each channel member promotes the product to the next level down the channel (producer → wholesaler → retailer → consumer).

9
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Give two common tools associated with a push strategy.

Trade shows and personal selling incentives such as push money (spiffs).

10
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What is a pull promotion strategy?

A B2C approach in which the producer promotes directly to consumers to create demand that pulls the product through the channel.

11
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Give a classic example of a pull strategy product.

Children’s toys heavily advertised to kids to create consumer demand.

12
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What is “push money” (also called spiffs)?

Extra commissions paid to retail employees as an incentive to push specific products.

13
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List the primary elements in the communication process.

Source, encoding, message, communications channel, decoding, receiver, and feedback (with noise potentially disrupting any step).

14
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In the communication process, what is ‘noise’?

Any interfering factor that distorts or blocks the message at any stage of transmission.

15
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Define viral marketing.

Promotion that leverages social networks to generate and organically spread a message, usually via social media channels.

16
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How does buzz marketing differ from other viral efforts?

It relies on unusual content and perceived scarcity to spark contagious word-of-mouth (e.g., Apple launch events).

17
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What is influencer marketing?

Using endorsements from individuals who have established credibility on social media to affect perceptions and buying habits.

18
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List the five main tiers of social media influencers from largest to smallest following.

Celebrities, mega influencers, macro influencers, micro influencers, and nano influencers.

19
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Which influencer tier is typically the most expensive for brands to hire?

Celebrities (followed by mega influencers).

20
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Name the three sequential stages in standard response models.

Cognitive (thinking), Affective (feeling), and Behavioral (doing).

21
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During which response-model stage does the consumer form liking or preference?

The affective stage.

22
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Give the modern definition of advertising.

Paid, non-personal communication transmitted through mass media to a target audience.

23
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Provide two historical milestones in advertising media.

(1922) first radio ads; (1941) first television ads.

24
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Roughly how many advertisements does the average American see per day?

About 3,000.

25
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What is pioneer advertising?

Advertising that focuses on a product category rather than a specific brand—e.g., ‘Got Milk?’

26
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Define comparative advertising.

Advertising that directly compares two or more brands on one or more product attributes.

27
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What is reinforcement advertising intended to do?

Reassure current users that they have made the right brand choice.

28
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Describe a continuous advertising schedule.

Ads run steadily throughout the year—best for products used continuously (e.g., toothpaste).

29
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What is a flighting advertising schedule?

Ads run in heavy spurts followed by no advertising—suited to seasonal products.

30
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Explain a pulsing schedule.

Combines continuous baseline advertising with periodic, heavier bursts at strategic times.

31
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Define advertising reach.

The percentage of the target audience exposed to an ad at least once during a specified time period.

32
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Define advertising frequency.

The average number of times a targeted consumer is exposed to an ad during a specified period.

33
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How does recognition testing differ from recall testing?

Recognition asks if respondents remember seeing an ad when shown it; recall asks them to name or identify the ad’s sponsor from memory.

34
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In Nielsen TV ratings, what does one ratings point represent?

1 percent of U.S. television households—currently about 1.2 million homes.

35
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Give the formula for program rating.

Rating = (Households tuned to show ÷ Total U.S. TV households) × 100.

36
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Give the formula for share of audience.

Share = (Households tuned to show ÷ Households using TV at that time) × 100.

37
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If 6 million homes watched a show, 30 million had TVs on, and 120 million own TVs, what are the rating and share?

Rating = 5; Share = 20.

38
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What is publicity in marketing?

Communication about an organization or its products transmitted through mass media at no charge to the firm.

39
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Name two key differences between publicity and PR.

Publicity is short-term and largely outside the firm’s control, whereas PR is ongoing and planned by the organization.

40
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Give an example of a product successfully launched primarily through PR.

Starbucks (also Palm, Botox, Segway).

41
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What is the first stage in the personal-selling process?

Prospecting—identifying potential customers.

42
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List the eight stages in the personal selling process.

Prospecting, pre-approach, approach, need discovery/diagnosis, presentation/prescription, overcoming objections, advancing the sale, and following up.

43
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How do firms determine optimal salesforce size?

Add salespeople until the cost of one more equals the additional sales revenue that person would generate.

44
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Name the three basic sales compensation methods.

Straight salary, straight commission, and combination plans.

45
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Provide the basic profit formula used in pricing decisions.

Profit = Total Revenue − Total Costs, or (Price × Quantity Sold) − Total Costs.

46
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What is markup?

The difference between the cost of a good and its selling price.

47
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List three determinants of price elasticity of demand.

Availability of substitutes, percentage of income spent on the item, and product necessity (also time and brand loyalty).

48
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Give an example of a highly inelastic product.

Prescription medication (others: gasoline, electricity).

49
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State the breakeven formula.

Break-even quantity = Fixed Costs ÷ (Price − Variable Cost per unit).

50
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Using fixed costs of $10,000, price of $100, and variable cost of $50, how many units must be sold to break even?

200 units.

51
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What is an internal reference price?

A price developed in the buyer’s mind through experience with the product, used to judge actual prices.

52
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Define price framing.

A strategy where a firm anchors the consumer’s perception by displaying a comparison price, such as MSRP or ‘You save’ statements.

53
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What is product bundling?

Selling several products together in one package at a single price; unbundling is charging separately for previously bundled items.

54
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List the three general pricing objectives.

Sales-oriented, profit-oriented, and customer-oriented objectives.

55
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How do you calculate markup as a percentage of cost?

Markup ÷ Cost. Example: $15 markup on $45 cost = 33.3%.

56
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What is price skimming and give one advantage.

Introducing a product at a high initial price and lowering it over time; advantage—recovers R&D costs and capitalizes on inelastic demand.

57
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Define penetration pricing and give one advantage.

Setting a low initial price to gain market share quickly; advantage—discourages competition and fosters habitual buying.

58
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What is the purpose of a loss-leader pricing strategy?

To attract customers with items priced at or below cost, hoping they buy other profitable products.

59
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Explain captive pricing.

Selling the core product at a low price while pricing required ancillaries (e.g., ink cartridges for printers) higher to generate profit.

60
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What is price lining?

Offering products in a line at a few predetermined price points, exploiting inelastic demand within each range.

61
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Why does odd-even pricing influence perception?

Ending prices in non-round numbers (e.g., $4.99) makes them seem lower because consumers mentally truncate the price.

62
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Define EDLP (Everyday Low Pricing).

A strategy of consistently offering products at low, non-sale prices instead of using frequent deep discounts.

63
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What is prestige pricing and give its classic pearl example.

Setting high prices to convey quality or exclusivity; black pearls sold poorly until displayed at Harry Winston with a high price, after which demand surged.

64
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Differentiate variable and dynamic pricing.

Variable prices change by known factors such as day or location (posted in advance); dynamic prices change in real time with demand (e.g., Uber surge pricing).

65
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Name the five key characteristics of e-marketing.

Addressability, interactivity, accessibility, connectivity, and control.

66
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What is the difference between addressability and accessibility?

Addressability is the firm’s ability to identify customer needs pre-purchase; accessibility is the customer’s ability to find information about the firm.

67
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Give two reasons consumer-generated marketing has grown.

Consumers want to express opinions more, and they trust fellow consumers over corporations.

68
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List three main ways firms use social media.

As a promotional tool (e.g., giveaways), a customer-service channel (quick, personalized responses), and a brand-management platform.