[CLINICAL PHARMACY] MANOR SET 2

D

1. All of following statements concerning upper respiratory infections are true, EXCEPT:

A. Most of these infections are caused by viruses

B. Symptoms may involve the sinuses throat, larynx and alrways

C. Treatment is primarily symptomatic

D. Prevention usually is achieved by timely immunization

C

2. Which of the following would be the most appropriate form of management of a patient with moderate osteoarthritis of the knee? A. Antimalarial Drug

B. Colchicine

C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

D. Oral Corticosteroids

E. Joint replacement surgery

B

3. All of the following are appropriate therapeutic regimens for a patient with acute gout, except:

A. maintenance of stable allopurinol dosage

B. administration of therapeutic doses of salicylates

C. injection of corticosteroid into inflamed joints

D. immobilization of inflamed joints

E. Application of ice over inflamed joints

B

4. A previously healthy, 68-year old woman develops auditory hallucinations. She cannot provide many details but belicves her mother is speaking to her, She has difficulty cooperating during the interview and physical examination which is unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Complex partial seizures

B. Alzheimer's disease

C. Adverse medication effect

D. Hyperthyroidism

E. Peduncular Hallucinosis

E

5. All of the factors listed below may play a role in the development of duodenal ulcer disease, except:

A. Spicy food ingestion

B. Tobacco smoking

C. Genetic factors .

D. Helicobacter pylori infection

E. Hyperparathyroidism

C

6. Uncomplicated seasonal allergic rhinitis is associated with all of the T following clinical features, EXCEPT:

A. Pruritus of the nose, palate and eyes

B. Thin, watery nasal discharge

C. Reddened nasal mucosa

D. Paroxysmal sneezing

E. Excess lacrimation

E

7. The diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia can be made with all of the following findings, except;

A. Absent marrow iron biopsy stain

B. Low serum ferritin levels

C. Hypochromia and microcytosis in specific clinical settings

D. Response to iron therapy within 1 month

E. Megaloblastic findings on marrow examination

E

8. All of the following therapies are used for metastatic prostate cancer, except:

A. Estrogen

B. Leuprolide

C. Orchiectomy

D. Corticosteroids

E. Somatostatin analog

B

9. Prognostic factors in breast carcinoma include all of the following, except:

a. Estrogen receptor status

b. Menopausal status

c. Size of primary tumor

d. Percentage of cells in s phase

e. Presence of lymph node metastasis in axillae

A

10. Iron, a necessary dietary constituent, functions primarily:

A. in oxidation - reduction system

B. to maintain water and electrolyte balance

C. In growth and repair of tissues

D. To stimulate bone formation

C

11. Which of the following metallic ions is especially required in the blood clotting process?

A. Ba++

B. Na+

C. Ca++

D. Mg++

E. K+

=

E

12. The agent of which the following diseases is not transmitted from person to by droplets or droplet spray?

A. Pneumonia

B. Diphtheria

C. Meningitis

D. Whooping cough

E. encephalitis

D

13. A reduction in acid secretions by the stomach. An increased tendency toward gastric carcinoma, atrophic glossitis and myelin degeneration of peripheral nerves are characteristic findings with:

A. Thalassemia

B. Agranulocytosis

C. Sickle cell anemia

D. Pernicious anemia

E. Polycythemia Vera

C

14. An endocrine disease characterized by increased susceptibility to infection, increased fatigability, recessive inheritance and polyuria is:

A. Acromegaly

B. Grave's disease

C. Diabetes mellitus

D. Cushing's disease

E. Hashimoto's disease

E

15. Rubcola, Pertussis, poliomyelitis, and mumps have in common the fact that all are :

A. Air-Borne diseases

B. Vector-Borne Diseases

C. Characterized by a toxemia

D. Primarily diseases of infants

E. Prevented by acute immunization

C

16. What type of leukocyte appears first and is present in Greatest numbers in an inflammatory focus soon after tissue injury has occurred:

A. Plasma cell

B. Eosinophil

C. Neutrophil

D. Lymphocyte

E. Monocyte

B

17. Amphotericin B, Griseofulvin, and Nystatin are often useful in the treatment of:

A. Streptococcal Infections

B. Fungi-diseases

C. Viral diseases

D. Tuberculosis

E. Cancer

B

18. Metastasis is likely in which of the following neoplasms?

A. Adenoma

B. Melanoma

C. Chondroma

D. Papilloma

B

19. The leading-cardiac cause of death is:

A. Mitral stenosis

B. Coronary heart disease

C. Myocarditis

D. Hypertensive cardiovascular disease

E. Congenital animalies

E

20. A positive tuberculin test means that the patient:

A. has active tuberculosis

B. Has subclinical infection

C. Is susceptible to tuberculosis

D. With immunity to tuberculosis from a past infection

E. With hypersensitivity to TB bacillus and its products

A

21. Cretinism is the result of a metabolic disturbance related to:

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Hypoparathhyroidism

D. Hyperfunction of anterior pituitary

E. Hyperfunction of anterior pituitary

C

22. Rheumatic fever is a disease which:

A. Can result from a transient bacteremia by viridans Streptococci

B. Is preceded by a group A streptococcal infection of the heart

C. Develops as a sequela to group A streptococcal infections.

D. Affects the glomeruli of the kidney

E

23. A fungal disease which may be confused with tuberculosis because i{ produces pulmonary calcifications:

A. amebiasis

B. Candidias

C. Blastomycosis

D. Actinomycosis

E. Histoplasmosis

D

24. The presence of glossitis, pallor, macrocytic anemia, hyperplasia of the bone marrow, achlorhydria, atrophy of the gastric mucosa, and focal degenerative lesions of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord in a person older than middle-age suggests the individual has had a deficiency of vitamin:

A.A

B.B1

C.B6

D. B12

E. C

B

25. Gout is an example of a disturbance in the metabolism of:

A. Calcium

B. Purines

C. Cholesterol

D. Carbohydrates

E

26. Arguments against indiscriminate use of antibiotics as chemotherapeutic gents Include the following, except:

A. Toxic effects of the antibiotics

B. Allergic reactions induced in patients

C. Development of drug resistance by an infectious agent

D. Secondary effects experienced due to creation of an imbalance in the normal body flora

E. The cost of medication

A

27. Which of the following antibiotics is effect in treating candidiasis?

A. Nystatin

B. Bacitracin

C. Tetracycline

D. Greiseofulvin

E. Penicillin

D

28. Which of the following statements Is correct regarding a patient from hepatitis type B Infection?

A. The virus will be excreted in the feces

B. The patient is a good candidate for blood donation

C. Patient will have protective Immunity to all viral hepatitis

D. Detection of hepatitis B antigen in serum is indicative of the carrier state

B

29. Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children's teeth between the ages oft A. one month in utero and three years

B. Six months in utero and eight years

C. Birth and ten years

D. One and years

E

30. The amount of red blood cell destruction per day is best measured by the:

A. Hematocrit

B. Amount of iron excreted

C. Change in the red blood cell count

D. Amount of hemoglobin/100 mL blood

E. Amount of bile pigments excreted by the liver

B

31. A history of medication with which of the following drugs requires special BEconsideration prior to general anesthesia?

A. Estrogen

B. Cortisone

C. Meperidine

D. Phenacetin

E. Diphenhydramine

C

32. The following are "Vital Signs" except:

A. Temperature

B. Blood pressure

C. Heart rate

D. Respiratory rate

E. Pulse

D

33. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of:

A. Anemia

B. Spherocytosis

C. Vitamin deficiency

D. Eosinophilia

E. Thrombocytopenic purpura

A

34. The most effective agent for the treatment of respiratory depression due to overdose of barbiturates is:

A. Oxygen

B. Caffeine

C. Coramine

D. Metrazol

E

35. Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when there is a history of:

A. Psychosis

B. Peptic ulcer

C. Tuberculosis

D. Diabetes mellitus

E. Any of the above

D

36. Which of the following barbiturates, in therapeutic doses, is the longest acting?

A. Amytal

B. Nembutal

C. Secobarbital

D. Phenobarbital

E. Pentothal

C

37. Staphylococcal infections are:

A. Controlled in hospitals

B. Readily responsive to penicillin

C. Difficult to treat because of drug-resistance strains

D. Not disseminated by carriers

C

38. Completed patient hospital records or charts are the legal property of the:

A. Patient

B. Doctor-in charge

C. Hospital

D. Patient representative (Lawyer)

E. Insurance Carrier

B

39. Which of the following may be a feature of acromegaly

A. Crowded teeth

B. Large tongue

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Micrognathia

E. Echma

E

40. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure, increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body weight. He is probably suffering from:

A. Diabetes

B. Hyperituitarism

C. Hyperparathyroidism

D. Hypothyroidism

E. Hyperthyroidism

D

41. When rendering first aid care to a severely injured person, priority should be given to:

A. Arresting hemorrhage

B. Recognition and treatment of shock

C. Recognition of associated head injuries

D. Establishing and maintaining a patient airway

C

42. A patient having a white blood count of 3,000 cells per cubic millimeter would be said to have:

A. Leukemia

B. Leukolysis

C. Leukopenia

D. Leukocytosis

B

43. What elements interfere with the activity of tetracycline?

A. Mg and Na

B. Mg and Ca

C. Na and K

D. Ca and B1

B

44. Serum hepatitis is caused by a/an:

A. Allergic reaction to serum

B. Virus

C. Fungus

D. Bacillus

E. Reaction to a local anesthetic

E

45. The characteristic lesion of herpes virus infections on the skin or mucous membrane is :

A. Necrosis

B. Tumefaction

C. Abscess

D. Hyperkeratosis

E. Vesicle

B

46. Which of the following has been determined to be the most cariogenic carbohydrate?

A. Starch

B. Sucrose

C. Glucose

D. Glycogen

E. Dextranaase

B

47. Pemicious anemia is usually associated with:

A. Iron deficiency

B. Glossitis

C. Blue sclera

D. Microcytic anemia

E. Gastric hyperacidity

B

48. A seven-year-old girl has a temperature of 102° F, Her mother states the child has had an upper respiratory infection for several days. Examination reveals a few small white dots surrounded by a reddish, halo on the buccal mucosa. The oral lesions most probably are Indicative of:

A. Varcella

B. Rubeola

C. Herpes Zoster

D. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

E. Herpangina

D

49. Administration of which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in patients with allergic bronchial asthma:

A. Atropine

B. Methacholine

C. d-Tubocurarine

D. Propranolol

E. Phentolamine

E

50. Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to of the bone marrow? y to cause depression

A. Streptomycin

B. Tetracycline

C. Amphotericin B

D. Penicillin G

E. Chloramphenicol

C

51. Which of the following drugs would be useful in treating the dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response?

A. Diazepam

B. Phenoxybenzamine

C. Chlorpheniramine

D. Atropine

E. Hexylresorcinol

E

52. Which of the following drug classes has been definitely established to be teratogenic in humans?

A. Salicylates

B. Antianginals

C. Local anesthetics

D. Barbiturates

E. Antineoplastic agents

C

53. Which of the following adverse effects is most commonly associated with administration of an intravenous barbiturate?

A. Hypotension

B. Hepatic Neocrosis

C. Respiratory Depression

D. Renal failure

E. Nausea and vomiting

E

54. Which of the following classes of drugs undergoes the least change in the body?

A. Alcohols

B. Salicylates

C. Local anesthetics

D. Barbiturates

E. Volatile anesthetics

E

55. The proper antibiotic to be employed prophylactically in a patient with rheumatic heart disease not receiving prophylactic penicillin is :

A. Erythromycin

B. Lincomycin

C. Cephalosporin

D. Penicillin G

E. Penicillin V

D

56. Most Life-threatening adverse drug reactions affect the:

A. Central nervous system

B. Liver and Kidney system

C. Bronchial smooth muscle

D. Cardiovascular and respiratory system

E. Gastrointestinal tract

C

57. Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect, which particularly occurs after a course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?

A. Penicillin

B. Lincomycin

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Tetracycline

E. Chlortetracycline

D

58. Which of the following types of drug responses is least predictable in occurrence?

A. Side effect

B. Tachyphylaxis

C. Overdosage toxicity

D. Idiosyncrasy

E. Therapeutic action

E

59. Which one of the following is not considered in epinephrine use?

A. Control of id hemorrhage

B. Decongestant

C. Use in combination with local anesthetics

D. use in allergic disorders

E. Reduction of migraine episode

D

60. The organs most prominently affected by B-blockers are:

A. Cardiovascular and CNS

B. Stomach and kidney

C. Stomach and kidney

D. Heart and Bronchi

E. Liver and skin

D

61. The responses of Which one of the following drugs should be monitored when it is used simultaneously with propranolol?

A. Digoxin

B. Quinidine

C. Chlorothiazide

D. Insulin

D

62. In the selection of a B-blocker, which of the following is not dominating factor?

A. The patient's disease state

B. The cost of medication

C. The desirable pharmacokinetic effect of the drug

D. The most recently marketed drug

E. The desirable pharmacologic effect

B

63. In hypertensive crisis in a patient with a history of CHF, which one of the following agents should be the drug of first choice?

A. Diazoxide

B. Nitroprusside

C. Hydralazine

D. Trimethaphen

D

64. A diuretic specifically useful to induce diuresis in cases of poisoning is:

A. Hydrochlorothiazide

B. Triamterene

C. CHlorthalidone

D. Mannitol

C

65. A diuretic which could be used in patients with hypersensitivity to sulfonamide is:

A. Hydrochlorothiazide

B. Furosemide

C. Ethacrynic acid

D. Spironolactone

B

66. Which of the following groups of drugs does not aggravate congestive heart failure?

A. Estrogen

B. Cardiac glycosides

C. Beta-blocking agents

D. Corticosteroids

C

67. Which one of the digitalis preparations should be monitored when simultaneously used with phenobarbital?

A. Digoxin

B. Quabain

C. Digitoxin

D. d-Lanatoside

A

68. Which type of angina pectoris Is most likely to respond to drug therapy?

A. Stable angina

B. Unstable angina

C. Nocturnal angina

D. Prinzmetal

C

69. Which of the following factors is most directly attributed to angina attacks?

A. Stress

B. Heavy smoking

C. Myocardial ischemia

D. Obesity

A

70. Which of the following drugs is considered a "Risk factor" in a patient with history of angina pectoris?

A. Diazoxide

B. Nitroprusside

C. Quinidine

D. Hydrochlorothiazide

D

71. The newest group of drugs used in the treatment of angina pectoris

A. Chewable isosorbide dinitrate

B. Transdermal patches

C. Beta-blocking agents

D. Calcium channel blockers

C

72. U-00 Insulin is

A. Red

B. White

C. Orange

D. brown

A

73. Which one of the following may increase the insulin requirements?

A. Increased physical activity

B. Increased food intake

C. Pregnancy

D. Acute infections

D

74. Which one of the following agents can be used QID/OD?

A. Ibuprofen

B. Indomethacin

C. Tolmetin

D. Piroxicam

E

75. Which one of the following is not associated with rheumatoid arthritis? J A. Fatigue

B. Anorexia

C. Morning stiffness

D. Joint swelling and pain

E. Bleeding

C

76. The Drug most commonly recommended by most clinicians in rheumatoid arthritis is:

A. Motrin

B. Indomethacin

C. Aspirin

D. Phenylbutazone

E. Acetaminophen

C

77. Diagnosis of gout can only be confirmed by:

A. Presence of severe pain and inflammation in the big toe

B. Presence of hyperuricemia

C. Presence of monosodium urates in the synovial fluid

D. Vesicle-formation in the joints

D

78. Which of the following medications would h both the early asthmatic response and the late asthmatic response?

A. Corticosteroids

B. Albuterol

C. Theophylline

D. Sodium Cromolyn

B

79. The only class of immunoglobulin that crosses the placenta:

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgE

E. IgD

E

80. Warfarin anticoagulation is used for a variety of cardiac conditions. Each of the following medications increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, except:

A. Cimetidine

B. Quinidine

C. A-methyldopa

D. Phenylbutazone

E. Vitamin K

B

81. Which of the following is associated with lupus like syndrome?

A. Captopril

B. Hydralazine

C. Propranolol

D. Minoxidil

C

82. Complications of heparin anticoagulation include all the following, except:

A. Vertebral Body Collapse

B. Hemorrhage

C. Skin Necrosis

D. Thrombosis

E. Thrombocytopenia

B

83. AIDS-related malignancies include all the following, except:

A. Cervical cancer

B. Gastric Carcinoma

C. CNS lymphoma

D. Hodgkin's disease

E. Kaposi's sarcoma

D

84. Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:

A. Nystatin

B. Neomycin

C. Amphotericin B

D. Griseofulvin

A

85. Anaphylactic shock to penicillin occurs:

A. Almost at once after administration

B. Between 6 to 12 Hours of adminsistration

C. Between 4 to 6 hours of administration

D. After 12 hours of administration

E

86. Which of the following agents is not effective against motion sickness?

A. Dimenhydrinate

B. Meclizine

C. Diphenydramine

D. Promethazine

E. Chlorpromazine

B

87. Inflammation of the bladder:

A. Urethritis

B. Cystitis

C. Prostatitis

D. Pyelonephritis

E. E. Urinitis

A

88. Infection acquired after at least 2 days in the hospital:

A. Nosocomial infection

B. Superficial infection

C. Secondary infection

D. Superinfection

E. Hirsutism

A

89. A 91-year-old nursing home patient has Alzheimer's Disease and congestive heart failure that is being treated with Digoxin. The patient now Is to be administered imipramine for depression. What Is the best dose and regimen of imipramine for this patient?

A. 10 mg BID initially, increased slowly into the therapeutic range:

B. 25mg TID, Increased to 50 mg TID in 1 week

C. 75 mg at bedtime

D. 150 mg at bedtime

B

90. The most common organisms isolated from intra-abdominal infections are:

A. Escherichia coli and staphylococcus aureus

B. Escherichia coli and Bacteroides fragilis

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and bacteroldes fragilis

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and staphylococcus aureus

A

91. Which of the following substances is the most effective agent against fungus infections of the mucous membrane?

A. Nystatin ointment

B. undecylenic acid

C. polymyxin ointment

D. Saturated magnesium sulfate

E. 10% aluminum chlroide solution

E

92. The action of which of the following drugs will most likely be impaired by concurrent administration of tetracycline?

A. Chloramphenicol

B. Sulfonamide

C. Lincomycin

D. Eryhtromycin

E. Penicillin

E

93. The following are often seen in patients receiving chemotherapy for cancer, except:

A. oral ulcerations

B. delayed wound healing

C. increased susceptibility to infection

D. Alopecia

E. Elevated white cell count

C

94. Abuse of which of the following drugs produces the greatest physiological and psychological damage?

A. LSD

B. Cocaine

C. Alcohol

D. Marijuana

E. Barbiturate

C

95. Which of the following drugs is a mild CNS stimulant useful in treating hyperkinetic children?

A. Caffeine

B. Doxapram

C. Methylphenidate

D. Theophylline

E. Nikethamide

E

96. Which of the following penicillins has the best gram negative spectrum?

A. Nafcillin

B. Methicillin

C. Penicillin V

D. Phenethicillin

E. Ampicillin

B

97. In a poorly treated diabetic individual. The degree of ketosis is closely correlated with the blood level of:

A. Amino acids

B. Free Fatty acids

C. Lipoprotein triglycerides

D. Lipoprotein phospholipids

E

98. A patient has no difficulty going to sleep at night, but awakens after a couple of hours and cannot get back to sleep. Which of the following drug groups would be most appropriate to treat this condition:

A. Nitrous oxide

B. Phenothiazine compounds

C. Sympathomi metic agents

D. tricyclic antidepressants

E. Benzodiazepine compounds

C

99. Which of the following drugs is currently widely used in treating opioid-dependent individuals?

A. Codeine

B. Alphapropdine

C. Metahdone

D. Meperidine

E. Pentazocine

B

100. Overdosage with certain steroids leads to manifestations of cushing syndrome: Hypertension, rounding of the face, hirsutism, glycosuria and sodium retention, Which of the following steroids produces most the of the above effects? ]

A. Estradiol

B. Prednisolone

C. Diethylstibestrol

D. Testosterone

E. Progesterone