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diphenhydramine
what has this MOA
- antihistamine
primary and delayed allergic rxns
what is the primary indication of diphenhydramine
acute anaphylaxis or anaphylactoid rxns
what are the indications for secondary diphenhydramine
benzodiazepine
what has this MOA
- anticonvulsant, positive allosteric modulator of GABA
benzodiazepine
what is a drug used for prolonged seizure activiity
midazolam (versed, 5mg) and diazepam (valium, 10 mg)
examples of benzodiazepines
corticosteroids
what has this moa
- mimics endogenous hormones and delayed onset
hydrocortisone
which corticosteroid is short acting
prednisone
which corticosteroid is intermediate acting
dexamethasone
which corticosteroid is long acting
betzold jarisch reflex
what is ti called when right before vasovagal syncope the pt becomes bradycardic, pallor, and hypotensive
simple and complex
what are the two types of partial seizures
simple
which type of partial seizure
- either motor, sensory, or both
complex
which type of partial seizure
- involves hallucinations, illusions, and deja vu
terbutaline
what is teh secondary intervention for asthma is albuterol doesn't work
acute MI
what is the leading cause of death in men < 65
false
T/F aspirin decreases the size of a thrombus
occlusive stroke
what is the most prevalent CVS
bronchoconstriction, inflammation of airways, and increased mucus production
what is the pathophysiology triad for asthma
levalbuterol
is albuterol or levalbuterol
- less potent
levalbuterol
is albuterol or levalbuterol
- less tachycardia
ADH
what does angiotensin II stimulate the posterior pituitary to release
increase
does ADH increase or decrease water resorption
depression
does angina pectoris cause an ST elevation of depression
elevation
does prinzmentals angina cause an ST elevation of depression
depression
does unstable angina/NSTEMI cause an ST elevation of depression
elevation
does STEMI cause an ST elevation of depression
unstable angina has no change in bioimarks
what is the main difference between unstable angina and NSTEMI
55-70%
what is the normal ejection fraction
45-50%
what ejection fraction does left ventricular heart failure cause
candidiasis
what is the number 1 oral presentation of HIV
factor 8
what factor is associated with vWF
A and B
which types of hepatitis have vaccines
< 10%
what % of hep b pts are in the chronic carrier state
60-80%
what % of hep c pts are in the chronic carrier state
0.3%
what is the risk of HIV transmission from infected pts to health care workers
3rd
ibuprofen should be avoided during what trimester
lithium
what is the most common stabilizing drug that acts on mania and depression
barretts esophagus
metaplastic changes in the tissue lining of the esophagus
33%
what % of the population will carry a psychiatric disorder
no
is schizophrenia a mood disorder
> 50,000
what is the platelet count needed for dental procedures
AML
what form of leukemia
- causes gingivitis
ALL
what form of leukemia
- most common in children
CLL
what form of leukemia
- most common in adults
B cells
what are the most targeted cells in hodgkins and nonhodgkins
G6DP anemia
disorder in an enzyme in RBC which results in hemolysis
plavix (clopidogrel)
an acute withdrawal of what drug can result in rebound thrombi to form
h. pylori
causative agent for peptic ulcers =
B12
are neurological symptoms associated with B12 or folate deficiency
noninfectious
what is the status when the pt has been compliant with standard multidrug anti-TB treatment for 2-3 wks
infection is latent of currently active
what does a positive TB test mean
crohns
cobblestone appearance is associated with what
< 200
what is the CD4+ count in aids
2, 7, 9, 10
what are the factors produced by vit K
ascites, encephalopathy, INR, bilirubin, and albumin
what is assessed when classifying child-pugh
no
is hypercementosis a symptoms of stem cell transplant
conversion disorder
when a psychological conflict (trauma) is expressed as a loss of physical function (blindness) when conflicted after acknowledgement
intravenous drug use, contact with bodily secretions, multiple sexual partners unprotected, alcohol abuse, and abuse of certain meds
what are the risk factors for liver disease
jaundice, icteric sclera, spider telangiectasia, palmar erythema, ascites, asterixis, hepatic encephalopathy, angular cheilitis, glossitis, portal HTN, parotid enlargement, and petechiae
what are the signs of liver failure
GERD
chronic mucosal damage cuased by consistent retrograde flow of stomach acid up on the esophagus
2nd
what trimester = the best to treat
increase
is there an increase in CO, stroke vol, HR, blood vol, and blood flow to uterus during pregnancy
decrease
is there and increase or decrease in systemic vascular resistance during pregnancy
increase
is there an increase or decrease in tidal volume and VO2 in pregnancy
celiac disease
ingestion of gluten causes immune response trigger in the villi of the small intestine
heparin
does heparin or warfarin
- enhance acitivity of ATIII
PTT
what test can be used to monitor heparin
warfarin
does heparin or warfarin
- vit K antagonist
PT/INR
what test can be used to monitor warfarin
heterosexual sex
what is the most common transmission for HIV
multiple myeloma
what has this hallmark sign
- punched out radiolucencies
hodgkins
what is associated with reed sternberg cells
pseudomembranous colitis
what is caused by c. difficile
high
is there a high or low risk for valvular stenosis if there is a pulmonary embolism
plasma proteins
thyroid hormones circulate bound to what
rheumatoid arthritis
sjogrens syndrome is a manifestation of what
atrial depolarization
what does this wave represent
- P wave
ventricular depolarization
what does this wave represent
- QRS complex
ventricular repolarization
what does this wave represent
- T wave
radio frequent catheter ablation
what can fix atrial fibrillation
levodopa
what is a dopamine precursor that helps to treat parksinsons disease
altered mental state
what is a common sign of diabetic ketoacidosis