EMT Chapter 14 BLS Resuscitation Resources

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Last updated 12:58 AM on 6/27/26
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40 Terms

1
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After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:

A. deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.

B. pause compressions to deliver ventilations.

C. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.

D. increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min.

A. deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds

2
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CPR should be initiated when:

A. the carotid pulse is very weak.

B. rigor mortis is obvious.

C. signs of putrefaction are present.

D. a valid living will is unavailable.

D. a valid living will is unavailable

3
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In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

A. respiratory arrest.

B. severe chest trauma.

C. a drug overdose.

D. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

A. respiratory arrest

4
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Which of the following statements regarding the use of an AED in children is correct?

A. AEDs are not used in pediatric patients because they do not experience ventricular fibrillation.

B. If the patient is less than 1 year of age, an AED is preferred over a manual defibrillator.

C. AEDs can be used safely on infants and children by using pediatric pads and an energy reducer.

D. AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if severe trauma is the cause of their cardiac arrest.

C. AEDs can be used safely on infants and children by using pediatric pads and an energy reducer

5
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Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?

A. Abdominal thrusts

B. Back slaps

C. Finger sweeps

D. Chest thrusts

D. Chest thrusts

6
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The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:

A. administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

B. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction.

C. performing five back slaps and five abdominal thrusts.

D. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough.

A. administering oxygen and transporting immediately

7
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You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:

A. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.

B. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR.

C. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.

D. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available.

D. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available

8
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The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by:

A. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

B. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.

D. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.

B. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling

9
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Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. forceful coughing.

B. acute cyanosis.

C. inability to speak.

D. grasping the throat.

A. forceful coughing

10
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Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed:

A. in sets of five followed by reassessment.

B. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process.

C. until he or she loses consciousness.

D. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.

C. until he or she loses consciousness

11
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Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?

A. Dependent blood pooling

B. Severe cyanosis to the face

C. Pulselessness and apnea

D. Agonal respiratory effort

A. Dependent blood pooling

12
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If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:

A. increase the rate of ventilation.

B. suction the patient's oropharynx

C. reposition the patient's airway

D. insert an oropharyngeal airway.

C. reposition the patient's airway

13
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Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started?

A. You are physically exhausted.

B. A physician directs you to do so.

C. Care is transferred to a bystander.

D. Pulse and respirations return.

C. care is transferred to a bystander

14
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When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-mask device, you should deliver each breath:

A. over a period of about 2 to 3 seconds.

B. every 2 to 3 seconds (20 to 30 breaths/min).

C. quickly to ensure adequate ventilation.

D. while watching for adequate chest rise.

D. while watching for adequate chest rise

15
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Most prehospital cardiac arrests in adults occur as the result of:

A. severe blunt trauma.

B. obstruction of the airway.

C. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

D. an acute ischemic stroke.

C. a cardiac dysrhythmia

16
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In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:

A. 15:2.

B. 5:2.

C. 5:1.

D. 30:2.

D. 30:2

17
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Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:

A. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.

B. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pad.

C. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.

D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pad.

D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pad

18
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A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:

A. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately.

B. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively.

C. has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly.

D. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately.

D. is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately

19
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CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

A. on a firm surface.

B. prone.

C. supine.

D. horizontal.

B. prone

20
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CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:

A. occurs every 24 months.

B. is delivered by computer.

C. involves hands-on practice.

D. is self-paced and brief.

C. involves hands-on practice

21
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When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery.

A. femoral

B. brachial

C. carotid

D. radial

B. brachial

22
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Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected?

A. Head tilt-neck lift

B. Jaw-thrust

C. Tongue-jaw lift

D. Head tilt-chin lift

B. Jaw thrust

23
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The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is:

A. one third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches.

B. one half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches.

C. two thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.

D. one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest.

A. one third the diameter of the chest, or about 1 1/2 inches

24
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Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:

A. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

B. in patients who are intubated.

C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.

D. when the airway is completely obstructed.

A. if you ventilate a patient too quickly

25
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Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:

A. blind finger sweeps.

B. back slaps.

C. bag-mask ventilation.

D. abdominal thrusts.

B. back slaps

26
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Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (VF) is correct?

A. Defibrillation is only indicated for witnessed VF.

B. VF results in an absence of forward blood flow.

C. Most patients in VF have a weak carotid pulse.

D. VF is a state of rapid ventricular contraction.

B. VF results in an absence of forward blood flow

27
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Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:

A. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.

B. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.

C. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.

D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver

28
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A team of EMTs and paramedics are attempting to resuscitate a man who is in cardiac arrest while his wife and son are present. Which of the following should occur during the resuscitation attempt?

A. Each member of the resuscitation team should update the family at various intervals throughout the attempt.

B. One EMT should update the family on the interventions that have been performed and how the patient has responded.

C. Communication with the family should be minimal until the final outcome of the resuscitation attempt is known.

D. A law enforcement officer should prepare the family for the patient's death and contact the funeral home.

B. One EMT should update the family on the interventions that have been performed and how the patient has responded

29
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Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:

A. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.

B. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.

C. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

D. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.

C. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest

30
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Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. a fractured sternum.

B. liver laceration.

C. gastric distention.

D. rib fractures.

C. gastric distention

31
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After ________ minutes without oxygen, permanent brain damage is possible.

A. 4 to 6

B. 1 to 2

C. 7

D. 2 to 3

A. 4 to 6

32
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What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?

A. 5:1

B. 3:1

C. 30:2

D. 15:2

D. 15:2

33
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After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:

A. immediately begin chest compressions.

B. assess for breathing and a pulse.

C. manually open the airway.

D. apply the AED and deliver a shock, if needed.

B. assess for breathing and a pulse

34
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To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of:

A. 80 to 100 compressions per minute.

B. at least 120 compressions per minute.

C. 100 to 120 compressions per minute.

D. no greater than 100 compressions per minute.

C. 100 to 120 compressions per minute

35
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Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?

A. Automated defibrillation

B. Abdominal thrusts

C. Chest compressions

D. Cardiac monitoring

D. Cardiac monitoring

36
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Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive, apneic 30-year-old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should:

A. perform 30 chest compressions.

B. ventilate again with greater force.

C. suction the oropharynx.

D. perform a blind finger sweep.

A. perform 30 chest compressions

37
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A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

A. determine if he has a valid living will.

B. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.

C. begin CPR until an AED is available.

D. start CPR and transport immediately.

C. begin CPR until an AED is available

38
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When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:

A. with one or two hands.

B. 80 to 100 times per minute.

C. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.

D. until a radial pulse is felt.

A. with one or two hands

39
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When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress:

A. at least 2 inches

B. greater than 2.4 inches

C. at least 1 inch

D. between 1 inch and 2 inches

A. at least 2 inches

40
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You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around, and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should:

A. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions.

B. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives.

C. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1.

D. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child.

D. call 911 and then return to begin CPR on the child