Pharmacology Review

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A set of Q&A flashcards covering pharmacology basics, drug absorption/metabolism, safety, key drug classes, interactions, monitoring, and prescribing considerations from the lecture.

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48 Terms

1
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What is pharmacology?

The study of the interaction between the body and drugs.

2
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What processes are included in pharmacokinetics (PK)?

Absorption, bioavailability, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

3
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What is pharmacodynamics (PD) the study of?

The physiologic and biochemical effects of drugs (what a drug does to the body).

4
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What is pharmacogenomics?

The study of how a person’s genes affect response to medications; pharmacogenetics refers to individual genes, pharmacogenomics to populations.

5
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Why is genotyping HLA-B*1502 relevant before starting carbamazepine?

It helps prevent severe Stevens–Johnson syndrome in certain Asian populations. FDA recommends genotyping Asians prior to carbamazepine therapy.

6
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What does half-life (t½) refer to?

The amount of time in which drug concentration decreases by 50%.

7
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What does AUC stand for and indicate?

Area Under the Curve; a measure of the average amount of drug in the blood after a dose (bioavailability).

8
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What does Cmax mean?

The peak serum concentration of a drug.

9
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What does MIC stand for in antibiotics?

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration—the lowest drug concentration that inhibits bacterial growth.

10
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What is the concept of the first-pass effect?

Oral drugs are metabolized in the liver (CYP450) after absorption; some are too extensively metabolized to be given orally. Bypassed by IV, transdermal, vaginal, etc.

11
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Which organ is the main site of drug metabolism?

The liver, with CYP450 enzymes being the primary system; six isozymes (CYP1A2, 2C9, 2C19, 2D6, 2E1, 3A4) handle most metabolism.

12
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What can CYP450 induction do to drug levels?

Increase drug metabolism, potentially lowering drug concentration.

13
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What can CYP450 inhibition do to drug levels?

Decrease drug clearance, increasing drug concentration and risk of toxicity.

14
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Which antibiotic class includes strong CYP450 inhibitors like erythromycin and ketoconazole?

Macrolides and antifungals (among others) are potent CYP450 inhibitors.

15
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Name some other CYP450 inhibitors mentioned.

Cimetidine; citalopram; protease inhibitors; certain antipsychotics; grapefruit juice (affects several CYP enzymes).

16
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Why is grapefruit juice clinically important?

It inhibits CYP450 enzymes and can raise levels of drugs such as statins, macrolides, CCBs, antivirals, amiodarone, benzodiazepines, and others.

17
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List some drugs with a narrow therapeutic index (NTI).

Warfarin; Digoxin; Theophylline; Carbamazepine; Phenytoin; Levothyroxine (TSH); Lithium.

18
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What is Beers Criteria useful for?

Guidance on medications to avoid or adjust in adults over 65 years old.

19
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Give examples of Beers Criteria 2020 focus areas.

Avoiding certain antipsychotics in elderly; higher bleeding risk with rivaroxaban and dabigatran vs warfarin/DOACs; tramadol hyponatremia risk; avoid combining opioids with benzodiazepines or gabapentinoids; avoid certain CNS depressants in older adults.

20
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What are common drug considerations for patients with kidney disease?

Drugs may be nephrotoxic or require dose adjustment; NSAIDs reduce renal blood flow; ACEIs/ARBs risk hyperkalemia; warfarin/INR changes; lithium renal risk; contrast dyes; potassium-sparing diuretics; oral sodium phosphate; H2 blockers; PPIs.

21
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How do NSAIDs generally affect the kidneys and heart failure?

NSAIDs can reduce renal perfusion and should be avoided in heart failure and severe renal disease; caution in GI bleed risk and late pregnancy.

22
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What monitoring is advised with ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

Serum potassium and serum creatinine at baseline, within the first month, and periodically, especially in elderly, diabetics, and CKD.

23
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What suffixes identify ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

ACE inhibitors end with -pril (e.g., lisinopril); ARBs end with -sartan (e.g., losartan).

24
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What is a key adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, including a warning symptom?

ACE inhibitors can cause an annoying dry cough; they can also cause angioedema and are contraindicated in pregnancy.

25
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What is a major clinical use distinction between ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

ACE inhibitors are first-line for HF with reduced ejection fraction and renal protection in diabetics; ARBs are alternatives when ACE inhibitors cause cough or angioedema or are not tolerated.

26
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What is a boxed warning associated with neprilysin inhibitors combined with valsartan (Entresto)?

Fetal toxicity; contraindicated with ACE inhibitors and in patients with a history of angioedema.

27
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What are common calcium channel blocker (CCB) subclasses and names?

Dihydropyridines: amlodipine, nifedipine, felodipine, nicardipine, isradipine; Non-dihydropyridines: verapamil, diltiazem.

28
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What are key cautions with nondihydropyridine CCBs like verapamil and diltiazem?

Can worsen HFrEF; avoid in HFrEF; may cause bradycardia and constipation; interactions with certain antibiotics (e.g., macrolides).

29
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What are common adverse effects of dihydropyridine CCBs?

Peripheral edema, headaches, flushing, dizziness; reflex tachycardia possible.

30
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What are common adverse effects of nondihydropyridine CCBs?

Bradycardia, constipation, decreased cardiac output; can worsen HF with reduced EF.

31
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Which beta-blockers are contraindicated in chronic lung disease?

Many nonselective agents; caution with asthma/COPD; avoid abrupt stopping due to rebound HTN.

32
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What are alpha-blockers used for and what is a key side effect?

Used for BPH; some (terazosin, doxazosin) also lower BP; main side effect is orthostatic hypotension.

33
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Which PDE5 inhibitors are contraindicated with nitrates?

Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil should not be used with nitrates due to risk of severe hypotension.

34
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What is a common safety note for Statins when taken with grapefruit juice?

Grapefruit juice can increase statin levels and risk of adverse effects like myopathy; avoid with certain statins.

35
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What is the typical target INR for atrial fibrillation or DVT/PE without mechanical valves?

2.0 to 3.0 (ideal around 2.5).

36
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What is the target INR for mechanical heart valves (mitral) or higher-risk situations?

2.5 to 3.5 (ideal around 3.0).

37
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What are reversal agents for direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)?

Idarucizumab (Praxbind) for dabigatran; andexanet alfa (Andexxa, Ondexxya) for FXa inhibitors (rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban).

38
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Which anticoagulants are DOACs and what is a key advantage over warfarin?

Direct Oral Anticoagulants: dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban (and betrixaban); fixed dosing with fewer interactions and no routine INR monitoring.

39
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When is warfarin still the preferred anticoagulant?

In patients with valvular disease or prosthetic heart valves requiring long-term anticoagulation.

40
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What is commonly noted with clopidogrel regarding reversal?

There is no specific reversal agent; in some cases, FFP or cryoprecipitate may be used, but data are limited.

41
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What are the Five Rights of medication safety?

Right patient, Right drug, Right dose, Right time, Right route.

42
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What is e-prescribing and its main benefit?

Electronic prescribing; includes formulary information and helps streamline choosing appropriate medications.

43
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What should be included on a prescription pad for controlled substances?

DEA number with clinic address; cannot be predated or postdated; date, patient name, drug, dose, route, frequency, and duration.

44
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What is the PLLR in FDA labeling?

Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule; replaced old letter categories with Pregnancy, Lactation, and Females/Males of Reproductive Potential information.

45
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Which antibiotic class is commonly associated with C. difficile risk and is often used for penicillin-allergic patients?

Lincosamides (clindamycin).

46
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What is the general guideline for antibiotic use in pregnancy for UTIs?

Beta-lactams, nitrofurantoin, and fosfomycin are commonly used options; avoid unnecessary antibiotics and consider safety profiles.

47
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What is the main warning with fluoroquinolones (quinolones)?

Increased risk of Achilles tendon rupture, possible aortic dissection; boxed warnings; avoid in children and certain at-risk adults; QT prolongation risk; interactions with cations and other QT-prolonging drugs.

48
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Which drugs are commonly monitored for thyroid, kidney, or hepatic effects due to narrow therapeutic windows?

Warfarin (INR), Digoxin (drug level), Theophylline (drug level), Lithium (drug level and TSH).