NURS 3372-Exam 2 review-Spring2024

What is sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)?

A disorder that damages the inner ear or auditory nerve leading to hearing loss.

What is tinnitus?

A ringing or humming heard in the ear in the absence of outside sound.

What is vertigo?

A feeling of spinning and imbalance, often resulting from labyrinthitis.

What is presbycusis?

Bilateral age-related hearing loss.

What is anosmia?

Lack of sense of smell.

What is ageusia?

Lack of sense of taste.

What is proprioception?

A sense of the position of the body in space.

What is the pulmonary circulation?

The part of the circulatory system that moves blood from the pulmonary artery into the lungs for oxygenation.

What is systemic circulation?

The part of the circulatory system that carries oxygenated blood from the left side of the heart to the rest of the body.

What components determine blood pressure?

Cardiac output (CO) and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR).

Systole vs Diastole: What is systole?

The period of cardiac contraction.

Systole vs Diastole: What is diastole?

The period of cardiac relaxation.

How is cardiac output determined?

By blood pressure (BP) and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR).

What is preload?

The volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole.

What is afterload?

The amount of resistance the ventricle must overcome to pump blood out of the heart.

What is Frank-Starling law?

The relationship between cardiac contractility, preload, afterload, and stroke volume.

What happens when preload increases?

Stroke volume and cardiac output increase.

What is the role of natriuretic peptides?

They promote natural diuresis and decrease blood volume in response to excess water.

Where are the main baroreceptors located?

Aorta and carotid arteries.

What is the baroreceptor reflex?

A mechanism that regulates blood pressure through activation of the autonomic nervous system.

What is orthostatic hypotension?

A decrease in systolic BP of 20 mmHg or diastolic BP of 10 mmHg upon changing positions.

What constitutes normal blood pressure?

Less than 120/80 mmHg.

What are the classifications of hypertension?

Normal, elevated, Stage 1, Stage 2, and hypertensive crisis.

What is white coat hypertension?

Elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety.

What are modifiable risk factors for hypertension?

Obesity, physical inactivity, tobacco use, excess sodium in diet, stress.

What are non-modifiable risk factors for hypertension?

Age, gender, family history.

What organs are primarily targeted by chronic hypertension?

Kidneys, eyes (retina), heart, brain, blood vessels.

What is the DASH diet?

A diet emphasizing low sodium and rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

What is Prinzmetal angina?

Chest pain caused by transient coronary artery spasms.

What is gestational hypertension?

High blood pressure that develops during pregnancy after the 20th week.

What is pre-eclampsia?

A pregnancy complication characterized by high BP and organ system damage.

What is eclampsia?

Seizures in a pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia.

What is HELLP syndrome?

A severe pregnancy complication involving hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets.

How can heart failure be classified?

By duration (acute/chronic), type (systolic/diastolic), and impact (high/low output).

Where does fluid accumulate in left-sided heart failure?

Primarily in the lungs.

Where does fluid accumulate in right-sided heart failure?

Primarily in systemic circulation.

What are the main causes of heart failure?

Chronic hypertension and ischemic heart disease.

What is ejection fraction?

A measurement of the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart's ventricles.

What ejection fraction defines HFrEF?

Less than 45%.

What is ventricular remodeling?

Changes in the size, shape, and function of the heart's ventricles in response to injury.

Which natriuretic peptide is monitored in heart failure?

B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP).

What are symptoms of left-sided heart failure?

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, orthopnea, confusion, weakness, decreased urine output.

What are symptoms of right-sided heart failure?

Jugular venous distention, peripheral edema, ascites, hepatomegaly.

How should patients monitor their weight for fluid retention?

Daily weighing at consistent times and conditions.

What weight changes indicate fluid retention?

Gaining 2-3 pounds in a day or 5 pounds in a week.

What defines hypertension?

High systemic arterial blood pressure causing damage to vessel linings.

What conditions can cause secondary hypertension?

Cushing's disease, pheochromocytoma, kidney disease.

What is atherosclerosis?

Build-up of plaque in arterial walls leading to cardiovascular disease.

What distinguishes unstable angina from stable angina?

Unstable angina is not relieved by rest and indicates a medical emergency.

What causes myocardial ischemia?

Blood clots, atherosclerotic plaques, coronary vasospasm.

What factors influence the extent of myocardial infarction damage?

Location, length of ischemia, available collateral circulation, zone of injury.

What are cardiac markers for myocardial infarction?

Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin.

What alterations occur in ECG during myocardial ischemia?

ST segment depression.

What is the primary ECG change seen in STEMI?

ST segment elevation.

What does P wave represent on ECG?

Atrial depolarization.

What does QRS complex represent on ECG?

Ventricular depolarization.

What does T wave represent on ECG?

Ventricular repolarization.

What are the characteristics of junctional rhythm?

Inverted or absent P waves, normal QRS interval.

What is the expected rate of junctional rhythm?

40-60 beats per minute.

How is atrial fibrillation identified on an ECG?

Irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves.

What are risk factors for the development of atrial fibrillation?

Hypertension, coronary artery disease, age.

What complications can arise from atrial fibrillation?

Increased risk of stroke.

What does the term 'bigeminy' refer to?

A pattern where every other heartbeat is a premature contraction.

What is the significance of troponin in ACS?

It is the most reliable biomarker for myocardial infarction.

What is the definition of a 1st-degree AV block?

A delay in the conduction of impulses from the atria to the ventricles with a prolonged PR interval.

What is complete heart block?

A condition where the atria and ventricles beat independently without any conduction between them.

What are monomorphic vs polymorphic V-tach?

Monomorphic V-tach has consistent morphology; polymorphic V-tach (Torsades de Pointes) has varying morphologies.

What is the function of glucagon?

Increases blood sugar levels by promoting gluconeogenesis.

What are the types of lipoproteins?

Chylomicrons, VLDL, LDL, HDL.

What is the normal range for LDL?

Less than 100 mg/dL is optimal.

What is the significance of the HbA1c test?

It reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months.

What defines prediabetes by HbA1c level?

Between 5.7% and 6.4%.

What is the most common type of diabetes mellitus?

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.

What are common symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss.

What is the treatment for type 1 DM?

Insulin therapy.

What are complications of type 2 DM?

Diabetic ketoacidosis, hypoglycemia.

What are long-term complications of uncontrolled diabetes?

Cardiovascular disease, diabetic neuropathy, nephropathy, retinopathy.

What is the function of insulin?

Lowers blood sugar levels by facilitating glucose uptake.

What is the effect of hyperaldosteronism?

Causes sodium retention and increased blood pressure.

Where are the adrenal glands located?

On top of each kidney.

What hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex?

Corticosteroids, mainly cortisol, and aldosterone.

What is Cushing's syndrome?

Excessive production of corticosteroids, often due to a tumor.

What is the function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

Regulates calcium levels in the blood by promoting absorption and releasing calcium from bones.

What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?

Inadvertent damage during thyroid surgery.

What is primary hyperparathyroidism?

Excess secretion of PTH typically due to a parathyroid tumor.

What are catecholamines?

Hormones produced by the adrenal medulla, including epinephrine and norepinephrine.

What is the function of calcitonin?

Inhibits osteoclast activity, reducing blood calcium levels.

What does thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) do?

Stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones.

What condition results from inadequate T3 and T4 production?

Hypothyroidism.

What are the signs of hyperthyroidism?

Weight loss, heat intolerance, anxiety, tremors.

What distinguishes Graves' disease?

An autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism, characterized by increased T3 and T4.

What is the treatment for hyperthyroidism?

Antithyroid medication, radioactive iodine, or surgery.

What is right-sided heart failure?

A type of heart failure where the right ventricle fails to pump effectively, leading to systemic fluid retention.

What are the risk factors for heart disease?

High blood pressure, high cholesterol, smoking, obesity, physical inactivity, and diabetes.

What is the function of the coronary arteries?

To supply blood to the heart muscle itself for nourishment and oxygen.

What is congestive heart failure (CHF)?

A condition in which the heart's ability to pump blood is inadequate to meet the body's needs.

What are common symptoms of congestive heart failure?

Shortness of breath, fatigue, swollen legs, and rapid heartbeat.

What role does the SA node play in the heart?

The SA node is the heart's natural pacemaker, regulating the heart's rhythm and initiating each heartbeat.

What is the purpose of angioplasty?

To open narrowed coronary arteries to restore blood flow to the heart muscle.

What is a heart murmur?

An unusual sound during the heartbeat cycle, often indicating a problem with heart valves.