Anesthesia Exam 1 Study Guide Flashcards

Flashcards on Anesthesia History, Components, and Types

What does the term 'anesthesia' mean, based on its Greek roots?

Without feeling

What are the four components of general anesthesia?

Amnesia, analgesia, muscle relaxation, and loss of consciousness

What did Humphrey Davy discover to relieve pain?

Nitrous oxide

When was the public Ether Day demonstration at Harvard?

October 16, 1846

What anesthesia-related device was developed in 1855 by Alexander Wood?

Hypodermic needle

Who developed the Anesthesiologist Assistant (AA) profession in the 1960s?

Drs. Volpitto, Gravenstein, and Steinhaus

What type of legal authority do CAAs require to practice?

State license/registration

Under whose direct supervision do AAs always work?

Always by an anesthesiologist

What practice model do AAs follow?

Anesthesia Care Team

What structures make up the upper airway?

Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx

What does the mnemonic LEMON stand for in the context of difficult airway evaluation?

Look, Evaluate, Mallampati, Obstruction, Neck mobility

What are the 5 P's indications for intubation?

Airway compromised, loss of reflexes, positive pressure ventilation, pulmonary toilet, pharmacologic route

What is the purpose of the sniffing position?

Aligns oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axes

What is the target range for EtCO₂ during ETT placement confirmation?

35–45 mmHg

What are the steps for Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI)?

Preoxygenate, apply cricoid pressure, administer induction agent & paralytic, intubate quickly, release cricoid pressure

What is the proper position for an LMA?

Tip over esophageal sphincter, sides in pyriform fossae, cuff below tongue base

What are potential systemic complications of intubation?

HTN, tachycardia, dysrhythmias

What is the O₂ percentage delivered by a nasal cannula?

24–40%

What is the preferred anesthesia technique for pregnant patients?

Neuraxial/regional

What are the core functions of the anesthesia machine?

Delivers precise concentrations of gases, facilitates respiration, displays data, prevents OR contamination

What is the function of the high-pressure system in the anesthesia machine?

Receives gas from cylinders

What is the role of the check valve in the high-pressure system?

Prevents reverse flow

What is the purpose of the proportioning system?

Prevent delivery of hypoxic mixtures

What is the function of unidirectional valves in the breathing circuit?

Prevent CO₂ rebreathing

What is the purpose of the APL valve?

Limits max pressure, protects lungs from barotrauma

What is the function of the scavenging system?

Removes excess anesthetic gases from the breathing circuit

What are the steps for Machine Checkout (Daily Safety Steps)?

Emergency ventilation equipment, high-pressure system, low-pressure system, scavenging system, breathing system, manual/automatic ventilation system, monitoring systems, final configuration and positioning

According to ASA Standards, what must be continually evaluated?

Oxygenation, ventilation, circulation, and temperature

What are the limitations of pulse oximetry (SpO₂)?

Motion artifact, poor perfusion, CO poisoning, methemoglobinemia, delay in desaturation detection, not a direct indicator of ventilation

What can be detected by capnography?

Airway obstruction, bronchospasm, circuit disconnection, pulmonary embolism, hypoventilation or CPR quality

Which ECG lead placements are best for detecting ischemia?

Leads II, V4, V5

What are the risks associated with hypothermia?

Shivering, coagulopathy, delayed healing, cardiac dysrhythmias

Why are IVs needed?

Administer fluids & medications, support hemodynamics, emergency and critical care access

What are contraindications for IV placement?

Burns, massive edema, cellulitis, same side as mastectomy or AV fistula, sites with injury or infection risk

Which IV fluid is compatible with blood products?

NS (0.9%)

What is the drop factor for macrodrip IV tubing?

10, 15, 20 gtt/mL

What is the maintenance fluid rate for the first 10 kg of body weight?

4 mL/kg/hr

What type of fluid loss is replaced at a rate of 2–6 mL/kg/hr or more during surgery?

Third space loss

What blood type is considered the universal donor?

Type O

What type of blood test is used as compatibility testing?

Antibody screen (Coombs test)

What are features of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?

Fever, hypotension, hemoglobinuria

What are potential complications of blood transfusion?

Hemolysis, Febrile/non-hemolytic rxns, Anaphylaxis, Hyperkalemia, Citrate toxicity, Infection