Evolution, Systematics, and Population Genetics Review

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These flashcards cover major concepts from the lecture notes on phylogeny, systematics, evidence for evolution, mechanisms of microevolution, population genetics, and taxonomy. Each card presents a key question with its concise answer to facilitate exam review.

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121 Terms

1
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What does the term "phylogeny" describe?

The evolutionary history of a species or group of related species.

2
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Which discipline classifies organisms and infers their evolutionary relationships?

Systematics.

3
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What are the two lasting features of Linnaeus’s taxonomic system?

Binomial nomenclature and a hierarchical classification of taxa.

4
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List the main taxonomic ranks from most inclusive to least inclusive.

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.

5
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In a phylogenetic tree, what does a branch point represent?

The divergence of two evolutionary lineages from a common ancestor.

6
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What are sister taxa?

Groups that share an immediate common ancestor not shared by any other group.

7
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What is the key difference between homology and analogy?

Homology is similarity due to shared ancestry; analogy (homoplasy) is similarity not due to common ancestry.

8
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Give the term for DNA sequence similarity produced by a speciation event.

Orthologs.

9
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Which term describes gene similarity caused by a duplication event within a genome?

Paralogs.

10
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Horizontal transfer of genes between unrelated lineages produces what kind of molecular homology?

Xenologs.

11
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State the principle of maximum parsimony.

The simplest explanation (fewest evolutionary events) is preferred when constructing phylogenies.

12
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Name three things phylogenetic trees do NOT show.

Exact times of divergence, amount of change in lineages, or direct ancestor–descendant relationships between neighboring taxa.

13
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Define cladistics.

A method of systematics that groups organisms into clades—monophyletic groups containing an ancestor and all its descendants.

14
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Contrast monophyletic, paraphyletic, and polyphyletic groupings.

Monophyletic includes an ancestor and all descendants; paraphyletic excludes some descendants; polyphyletic lacks the most recent common ancestor.

15
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What is horizontal gene transfer?

The movement of genes from one genome to another by mechanisms other than parent-to-offspring inheritance.

16
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Define convergent evolution.

Independent evolution of similar traits in distantly related lineages due to similar environmental pressures, producing analogies.

17
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What are vestigial structures?

Remnants of features that served important functions in an organism’s ancestors but are reduced or unused in the descendant.

18
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List four lines of evidence for evolution discussed in lecture.

Homology, the fossil record, biogeography, and genetic/molecular evidence.

19
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How are most fossils dated directly?

By radiometric dating of certain rock types encasing the fossils.

20
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Define biogeography.

The scientific study of the geographic distribution of species.

21
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What is an endemic species?

A species found nowhere else in the world except its specific location.

22
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Why is the universal genetic code considered evidence for common ancestry?

Because nearly all known organisms use the same codon system to translate DNA into proteins.

23
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State Darwin’s definition of natural selection.

A process in which individuals with favorable inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce.

24
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In evolutionary terms, what is "fitness"?

The relative ability of an individual to survive and produce fertile offspring.

25
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Name Darwin’s three broad observations explained by natural selection.

The unity of life, the diversity of life, and organisms’ fit (adaptation) to their environments.

26
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What two observations led Darwin to his first inference about natural selection?

Variation among individuals and the tendency of species to produce more offspring than the environment can support.

27
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Summarize Lamarck’s (unsupported) mechanism for evolution.

Traits acquired during an organism’s lifetime are inherited by its offspring (use and disuse).

28
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Define artificial selection.

Human-directed breeding that selects for desirable traits in organisms.

29
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At what biological level does evolution actually occur?

Populations evolve, even though natural selection acts on individuals.

30
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What is speciation?

The process by which one species splits into two or more distinct species.

31
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Differentiate microevolution and macroevolution.

Microevolution is change in allele frequencies within a population; macroevolution is evolution above the species level.

32
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List the four mechanisms that cause microevolution.

Natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and mutation.

33
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Define genetic drift.

Random changes in allele frequencies due to chance events, often reducing variation.

34
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What is the founder effect?

Genetic drift that occurs when a small group isolates from a larger population, carrying only a subset of alleles.

35
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Describe the bottleneck effect.

A sudden reduction in population size that changes allele frequencies and may lead to inbreeding.

36
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Why does inbreeding reduce population fitness?

It increases homozygosity, raising the chance that harmful recessive alleles will be expressed.

37
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Define gene flow.

The movement of alleles among populations via migration of individuals or gametes.

38
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What is a gene pool?

The complete set of alleles for all loci present in a population.

39
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State the Hardy–Weinberg equation for allele frequencies.

p + q = 1, where p and q represent the frequencies of two alleles at a locus.

40
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Name the five conditions required for Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium.

No mutations, random mating, no natural selection, extremely large population size, and no gene flow.

41
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What is considered the ultimate original source of new alleles?

Mutation.

42
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Define sexual selection.

A process in which individuals with certain traits are more likely to obtain mates.

43
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Contrast intrasexual and intersexual selection.

Intrasexual selection is competition within one sex (often males); intersexual selection is mate choice by the opposite sex (often females).

44
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Explain directional selection.

Selection that favors individuals at one extreme of a phenotypic range.

45
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Explain disruptive selection.

Selection that favors individuals at both extremes of a phenotypic range over intermediate forms.

46
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Explain stabilizing selection.

Selection that favors intermediate phenotypes and acts against extremes.

47
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What does the principle of parsimony (Ockham’s razor) state in phylogenetics?

The simplest tree that fits the data (fewest evolutionary steps) is preferred.

48
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Name the three domains of life.

Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.

49
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Give two key characteristics of the domain Bacteria.

Unicellular prokaryotes with cell walls; reproduce asexually.

50
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Give two key characteristics of the domain Archaea.

Unicellular prokaryotes with cell walls; often inhabit extreme environments.

51
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What distinguishes domain Eukarya from the other two domains?

Cells with nuclei and membrane-bound organelles.

52
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To which class do humans, cats, dogs, and mice belong?

Mammalia.

53
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All monkeys are placed in which taxonomic order?

Primates.

54
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Birds belong to which class?

Aves.

55
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What are the two parts of a scientific name in binomial nomenclature?

Genus name and specific epithet (species name).

56
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What is a holotype?

The single physical specimen designated as the type example of a species.

57
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Define homoplasies.

Analogous structures or molecular sequences that evolved independently in different lineages.

58
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Which two evolutionary mechanisms decrease genetic variation within a population?

Natural selection and genetic drift.

59
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Which two mechanisms typically increase genetic variation within a population?

Gene flow and mutation.

60
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What does the term "phylogeny" describe?

The evolutionary history of a species or group of related species.

61
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Which discipline classifies organisms and infers their evolutionary relationships?

Systematics.

62
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What are the two lasting features of Linnaeus’s taxonomic system?

Binomial nomenclature and a hierarchical classification of taxa.

63
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List the main taxonomic ranks from most inclusive to least inclusive.

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species.

64
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In a phylogenetic tree, what does a branch point represent?

The divergence of two evolutionary lineages from a common ancestor.

65
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What are sister taxa?

Groups that share an immediate common ancestor not shared by any other group.

66
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What is the key difference between homology and analogy?

Homology is similarity due to shared ancestry; analogy (homoplasy) is similarity not due to common ancestry.

67
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Give the term for DNA sequence similarity produced by a speciation event.

Orthologs.

68
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Which term describes gene similarity caused by a duplication event within a genome?

Paralogs.

69
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Horizontal transfer of genes between unrelated lineages produces what kind of molecular homology?

Xenologs.

70
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State the principle of maximum parsimony.

The simplest explanation (fewest evolutionary events) is preferred when constructing phylogenies.

71
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Name three things phylogenetic trees do NOT show.

Exact times of divergence, amount of change in lineages, or direct ancestor–descendant relationships between neighboring taxa.

72
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Define cladistics.

A method of systematics that groups organisms into clades—monophyletic groups containing an ancestor and all its descendants.

73
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Contrast monophyletic, paraphyletic, and polyphyletic groupings.

Monophyletic includes an ancestor and all descendants; paraphyletic excludes some descendants; polyphyletic lacks the most recent common ancestor.

74
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What is horizontal gene transfer?

The movement of genes from one genome to another by mechanisms other than parent-to-offspring inheritance.

75
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Define convergent evolution.

Independent evolution of similar traits in distantly related lineages due to similar environmental pressures, producing analogies.

76
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What are vestigial structures?

Remnants of features that served important functions in an organism’s ancestors but are reduced or unused in the descendant.

77
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List four lines of evidence for evolution discussed in lecture.

Homology, the fossil record, biogeography, and genetic/molecular evidence.

78
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How are most fossils dated directly?

By radiometric dating of certain rock types encasing the fossils.

79
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Define biogeography.

The scientific study of the geographic distribution of species.

80
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What is an endemic species?

A species found nowhere else in the world except its specific location.

81
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Why is the universal genetic code considered evidence for common ancestry?

Because nearly all known organisms use the same codon system to translate DNA into proteins.

82
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State Darwin’s definition of natural selection.

A process in which individuals with favorable inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce.

83
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In evolutionary terms, what is "fitness"?

The relative ability of an individual to survive and produce fertile offspring.

84
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Name Darwin’s three broad observations explained by natural selection.

The unity of life, the diversity of life, and organisms’ fit (adaptation) to their environments.

85
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What two observations led Darwin to his first inference about natural selection?

Variation among individuals and the tendency of species to produce more offspring than the environment can support.

86
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Summarize Lamarck’s (unsupported) mechanism for evolution.

Traits acquired during an organism’s lifetime are inherited by its offspring (use and disuse).

87
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Define artificial selection.

Human-directed breeding that selects for desirable traits in organisms.

88
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At what biological level does evolution actually occur?

Populations evolve, even though natural selection acts on individuals.

89
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What is speciation?

The process by which one species splits into two or more distinct species.

90
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Differentiate microevolution and macroevolution.

Microevolution is change in allele frequencies within a population; macroevolution is evolution above the species level.

91
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List the four mechanisms that cause microevolution.

Natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and mutation.

92
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Define genetic drift.

Random changes in allele frequencies due to chance events, often reducing variation.

93
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What is the founder effect?

Genetic drift that occurs when a small group isolates from a larger population, carrying only a subset of alleles.

94
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Describe the bottleneck effect.

A sudden reduction in population size that changes allele frequencies and may lead to inbreeding.

95
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Why does inbreeding reduce population fitness?

It increases homozygosity, raising the chance that harmful recessive alleles will be expressed.

96
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Define gene flow.

The movement of alleles among populations via migration of individuals or gametes.

97
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What is a gene pool?

The complete set of alleles for all loci present in a population.

98
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State the Hardy–Weinberg equation for allele frequencies.

p + q = 1, where p and q represent the frequencies of two alleles at a locus.

99
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Name the five conditions required for Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium.

No mutations, random mating, no natural selection, extremely large population size, and no gene flow.

100
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What is considered the ultimate original source of new alleles?

Mutation.