MICRO + PARA

A. Robert Koch- Father of Chemotherapy

Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A. Robert Koch- Father of Chemotherapy B. Ignaz Semmelweis- Father of Handwashing C. Edward Jenner- Father of Immunology D. Louis Pasteur- Father of Modern Microbiology

D. Phycology

Study of algae A. Mycology C. Protozoology B. Virology D. Phycology

D. Contains multiple chromosomes

All of the following are true about prokaryotes, except: A. No nucleus B. Ribosomes are 30s and 50s C. Examples are archaea and bacteria D. Contains multiple chromosomes

A. Paul Ehrlich

He discovered Compound 606 which was used for syphilis A. Paul Ehrlich C. Emil von Behring B. Gerhard Domagk D. Rudolf Virchow

D. Helminths

Which of the following is not a microorganism? A. Algae C. Protozoan B. Fungi D. Helminths

C. Capnophiles

Organisms which require environments having low oxygen concentration but rich in CO2 A. Obligate anaerobes C. Capnophiles B. Facultative anaerobes D. Aerotolerant anaerobes

C. Facultative anaerobes

Microorganisms which prefer oxygen rich environments but can still survive even if oxygen is absent A. Obligate aerobes C. Facultative anaerobes B. Aerotolerant anaerobes D. Microaerophiles

D. Mesophiles

Organisms that can grow at body temperature: A. Thermophiles C. Acidophiles B. Psychrophiles D. Mesophiles

B. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids

The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are: A. Carbohydrates/Nucleic acids/Steroids B. Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids C. Nucleic acids/Chitin/Peptidoglycans D. Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin

C. Chemoheterotrophs

Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as: A. Chemoautotrophs C. Chemoheterotrophs B. Photoautotrophs D. Autotrophs

A. Psychrophiles

These bacteria can survive very cold temperature and preserved in the frozen state, A. Psychrophiles C. Hydrophile B. Mesophile D. Thermophile

D. Vibrios

Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as: A. Cocci C. Spiral B. Bacilli D. Vibrios

C. Gram positive

In gram staining, a bacterial cell that will stain purple, the specimen will be labeled as A. Gram variable B. Violet is not an observed color in gram stain C. Gram positive D. Gram negative

B. Nigrosin

Primary stain used for Negative stain? A. Malachite green C. Crystal violet B. Nigrosin D. Carbolfuchsin

D. Gram’s iodine

Which of the following is used as mordant in gram staining? A. Crystal violet C. Safranin B. Alcohol D. Gram’s iodine

B. Bacillus fumidus

All of the following are used as probiotics except, A. Lactobacillus spp C. Bifidobacteria B. Bacillus fumidus D. Saccharomyces

C. Methanogenic

Anaerobic bacteria that derive energy by converting formates, acetates and other compounds to methane: A. Microaerophilic C. Methanogenic B. Metanochromic D. Cyanobactreria

B. D-glutamic acid

The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of: A. L-glutamic acid C. Polysaccharide B. D-glutamic acid D. Nucleic acid

A. Cosmid

Which of the following is a hybrid plasmid used as cloning vector in genetic engineering for large pieces of DNA? A. Cosmid C. Fosmids B. Cos gene D. Lambda phage

C. Flagella at both ends

Flagella are described as long, whip-like structures. Which of the following is true about the arrangement of amphitrichous? A. Single polar flagellum at one side B. Covers the entire cell C. Flagella at both ends D. No flagella

A. Produced by Gram (-) only All of the following are true about exotoxin, except? A. Produced by Gram (-) only B. Specific for a particular cell structure C. It is part of the growth and metabolism of a bacteria D. Can be converted to toxoid

B. Flagella

Major source of the H antigen A. Capsule C. Cell Wall B. Flagella D. Ribosomes

A. Lipoproteins

Gram-negative bacterial cell wall contains the following components, except A. Lipoproteins C. Lipopolysaccharide B. Lipoteichoic acid D. Phospholipid

D. Pilus

Proteinaceous appendage on the surface of bacteria A. Flagella C. Trichome B. Cilium D. Pilus

D. Bacillus subtilis

Which of the following bacteria do you expect to be the most resistant to high temperature? A. Escherichia coli B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Bacillus subtilis

D. Sporulation

Which of the following is the formation of dormant forms of bacteria when conditions are inhospitable? A. Mutation C. Germination B. Polymorphism D. Sporulation

D. Dipicolinic Acid

Substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores A. Peptidoglycan C. Porins B. Teichoic acid D. Dipicolinic Acid

A. Transduction

A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus: A. Transduction C. Transformation B. Conjugation D. Both A and C

C. Hemolysin

Bacterial enzyme which can cause lysis of red blood cells? A. Coagulase C. Hemolysin B. Kinase D. Catalase

B. Log phase

In this phase, there is a rapid replication and growth of bacterial cells. A. Stationary phase C. Lag phase B. Log phase D. Decline phase

A. Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following microorganism is both catalase and coagulase positive? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Transposition

Transfer of genes through jumping genes. A. Conjugation C. Transduction B. Transposition D. Transformation

A. I, II, III

Which of the following factors determine the number and variety of microorganisms found on the skin? I. Temperature and moisture II. pH and salinity III. type of skin A. I, II, III C. II, III B. I, II D. I, III

C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium botulinum C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Clostridium difficile

A. Requires X and V factors

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic/s of Neisseria? A. Requires X and V factors B. Oxidase-positive C. Cocci D. Gram-negative

B. Mycoplasma

Which of the following lacks a cell wall? A. Clostridium C. Mycobacterium B. Mycoplasma D. Nocardia

B. Nose

An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occured in the newborn nursery. You are called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the norma flora, what is the most likely source of the bacteria? A. Colon C. Throat B. Nose D. Vagina

A. Completely lyse the RBC

Streptococci are incubated in a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following reactions show beta-hemolytic streptococci? A. Completely lyse the RBC B. Partially lyse the RBC C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC D. Leave a greenish discoloration

C. Optochin Test

Test used to differentiate Viridans Streptococci from Streptococcus pneumoniae: A. Quellung Test C. Optochin Test B. Catalase Test D. Bacitracin Test

D. Listeria monocytogenes

Aerobic, non-spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients. A. Meningococcus C. Clostridium tetani B. Gonococcus D. Listeria monocytogenes

C. Actinomyces israelii

Colonies of this organism form visible concretions resembling grains of sand, known as sulfur granules A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Propionibacterium acnes C. Actinomyces israelii D. Listeria monocytogenes

A. Meningococcus

A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule referred to as glycocalyx. A. Meningococcus C. Escherichia B. Gonococcus D. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Serratia marcescens

An opportunistic pathogen that produces red colonies and usually causes nosocomial infections such as pneumonia and bacteremia A. Escherichia coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Enterobacter species D. Serratia marcescens

C. Proteus mirabilis

The formation of concentric circles on agar surfaces, known as “Swarming Phenomenon” is commonly seen in: A. Escherichia coli B. Serratia marscescens C. Proteus mirabilis D. Staphylococcus aureus

B. V and W antigens

The main virulence factor of Yersinia pestis is/are the: A. Endotoxin B. V and W antigens C. Erythrogenic toxins D. Lecithinase

A. Mycolic acid

Hydrophobic waxy lipid present in high concentrations in acid-fast bacteria A. Mycolic acid C. Lipoteichoic Acid B. Peptidoglycan D. Lipopolysaccharide

D. II only

The following bacteria are the leading cause of nosocomial infections around the world due to antimicrobial resistance, except: I. Enterococcus faecium II. Streptococcus pyogenes III. Klebsiella pneumoniae IV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa A. I, II C. I, III, IV B. I, III D. II only

A. Paramecium

Which of the following is not a fungus? A. Paramecium C. Yeast B. Penicillin D. Mold

A. Yeast

A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or sexually through spore formation: A. Yeast C. Mushroom B. Mold D. None of the above

A. Septate hyphae

Branched, tubular filaments with cross walls found in large fungi are A. Septate hyphae C. Aseptate haustoria B. Aseptate hyphae D. Dimorphic mycelia

B. Prions

Causative agent of the mad cow disease A. Viruses C. Viroids B. Prions D. Helminths

C. Ringworm

Which of the following is an example of superficial mycoses? A. Histoplasmosis C. Ringworm B. Sporotrichosis D. Pityriasis versicolor

B. Ciliates

Balantidium is classified as A. Flagellates C. Amebae B. Ciliates D. Sporozoa

C. Parvoviridae

All of the following are double stranded DNA virus, except: A. Papillomaviridae C. Parvoviridae B. Hepadnaviridae D. Poxviridae

C. I,II

Which of the following are naked RNA viruses? I. Caliciviridae III. Coronaviridae II. Hepevirus IV. Togaviridae A. I,II,III C. I,II B. I,II,III,IV D. III,IV

B. Reoviridae

Which of the following is doesn’t have helical capsid symmetry? A. Filoviridae C. Rhabdoviridae B. Reoviridae D. Arenaviridae

B. Capsomere

Capsids are made up of what? A. Nucleic acid C. Viral coat B. Capsomere D. Prions

A. Staphylococcus aureus

The causative agent of skin boils. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Streptococcus agalactiae

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Normal flora of the skin but may cause “stitch abscess” and sepsis. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumonia D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

This is known as the “Flesh Eating Streptococcus” A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Viridans Streptococci D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Propionibacterium acnes

Produces lipases which breakdown skin lipids into free fatty acids, resulting in tissue inflammation A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Actinomyces israelii C. Propionibacterium acnes D. Listeria monocytogenes

A. Tinea pedis

Also known as athlete’s foot A. Tinea pedis C. Tinea corporis B. Tinea unguium D. Tinea cruris

B. Koplik’s spots

White spots found in mucous membranes of patients with measles A. Rose spot C. Petechiae B. Koplik’s spots D. Hard Chancre

A. Variola virus

Causative agent of smallpox A. Variola virus C. Herpes Virus B. Vaccinia Virus D. Hepadna Virus

A. Tinea capitis

It causes ringworm infection in the scalp A. Tinea capitis C. Trichophyton rubrum B. Tinea corporis D. Malassezia furfur

C. Trichosporon species

Causative agent of White Piedra A. Horataea werneckii B. Piedraia hortae C. Trichosporon species D. Sporothrix schenckii

A. Human Parvovirus B19

Causative agent of Erythema infectiosum A. Human Parvovirus B19 C. Human Papilloma virus B. HSV Type 1 D. Monkeypox virus

B. Toxic shock syndrome

A 28 year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and symptoms, fever, hypotension, a rash on her trunk, palms, and soles, extreme fatigue and diarrhea. The patient above most likely has A. Scalded skin syndrome B. Toxic shock syndrome C. Scarlatina D. Chickenpox

D. Rheumatic fever

An example of a streptococcal disease sequela: A. Scarlet fever C. Puerperal sepsis B. Pharyngitis D. Rheumatic fever

C. Puerperal sepsis

Also known as childbed fever A. Scarlet fever C. Puerperal sepsis B. Pharyngitis D. Rheumatic fever

D. Streptococcus viridans

The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus viridans

A. Leishmania donovani

This causes visceral leishmaniasis: A. Leishmania donovani B. Leishmania tropica C. Leishmania braziliensis D. Trypanosoma cruzi

B. Stibogluconate

This is the drug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis A. Primaquine C. Pentamidine B. Stibogluconate D. Suramin

A. Schistosoma japonicum

The eggs of this Schistosoma show a rudimentary lateral spine A. Schistosoma japonicum B. Schistosoma mansoni C. Schistosoma haematobium D. Both A and B

C. Epstein barr virus

Causative agent of Kissing disease A. Rotavirus C. Epstein barr virus B. Cytomegalovirus D. Parvovirus B19

D. Scarlet Fever

The production of erythrogenic Streptococcus pyogenes during pharyngitis will lead to the development of: A. Rheumatic Fever C. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Necrotizing Fasciitis D. Scarlet Fever

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

D. Destroy the elongation factor used in protein synthesis The diphtheria toxin can enzymatically A. Trigger increased release of cytokines resulting to inflammation B. Block release of inhibitory neurotransmitters such as GABA C. Inhibit the release of acetylcholine D. Destroy the elongation factor used in protein synthesis

B. Bordetella pertussis

Causative agent of Whooping cough A. Franciscella tularensis B. Bordetella pertussis C. Coxiella burnetii D. Bartonella bacilliformis

B. Legionella pneumophilia

Causative agent of pneumonia acquired from contaminated air-conditioning systems A. Bartonella bacilliformis B. Legionella pneumophilia C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Bartonella henselae

C. Pyridoxine

This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects A. Rifampicin C. Pyridoxine B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and is capable of producing Niacin. It can be treated with Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH. A. Mycobacterium leprae B. Treponema pallidum C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Leptospira interrogans

A. Mycoplasmas

The organism with atypical cell walls: A. Mycoplasmas C. Chlamydias B. Rickettias D. Viruses

C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Causative agent of Primary Atypical Pneumonia A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Chlamydia pneumoniae

C. Pneumocystis

A fungus formerly classified as a parasitic Sporozoan affecting patients with immune deficiency. A. Microsporidium C. Pneumocystis B. Cryptosporidium D. Blastomyces

D. Histoplasma capsulatum

The fungal pathogen commonly seen growing in droppings of bats and birds A. Candida albicans B. Cryptococcus neoformans C. Coccidioides immitis D. Histoplasma capsulatum

A. Coronavirus

Causative agent of SARS A. Coronavirus C. Rotavirus B. Norovirus D. Retrovirus

A. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

Which of the following combination therapy is the treatment of choice for P. carinii pneumonia (PCP)? A. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole B. Artemether + Lumefantrine C. Metronidazole and iodoquinol D. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

C. Clostridium botulinum

The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods. A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Clostridium difficile

D. Clostridium difficile

Anaerobic, gram positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis. A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium tetani C. Clostridium botulinum D. Clostridium difficile

D. Both B and C

Drug of choice for the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis A. Clindamycin C. Metronidazole B. Vancomycin D. Both B and C

A. Bacillus cereus

Causative agent of fried rice food poisoning A. Bacillus cereus C. Clostridium difficile B. Bacillus anthracis D. Clostridium botulinum

C. Verotoxin

The toxin of E. coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is A. Heat-labile enterotoxin C. Verotoxin B. Heat-stable enterotoxin D. Exfoliative toxin

A. O157:H7

The most common serotype of Escherichia coli which produces shiga toxin and causes hemorrhagic colitis A. O157:H7 C. O918:H7 B. AH1N1 D. H7000

A. ETEC

Common cause of Traveler’s Diarrhea A. ETEC C. EAEC B. EHEC D. EIEC

A. S. dysenteriae

The species of shigella responsible for the most severe form of shigellosis A. S. dysenteriae B. S. sonnei C. S. boydii D. S. flexneri

D. Ceftriaxone

Drug of choice for Typhoid Fever A. Streptomycin C. Ampicillin B. Ciprofloxacin D. Ceftriaxone

A. Helicobacter pylori

In the stomach, this organism produces urease which can break down urea A. Helicobacter pylori B. Proteus mirabilis C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni

A. Loa loa

This is also known as African Eye Worm A. Loa loa C. Wucheria bancrofti B. Onchocerca volvulus D. Dracunculus medinensis

D. Ancylostoma duodenale

Which of the following is referred to as “Old World” hookworm? A. Ancylostoma caninumflea B. Necator americanus C. Toxocara canis D. Ancylostoma duodenale