CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 – Practice Flashcards

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120 question-and-answer style flashcards covering key concepts from Professor Messer’s CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 course notes, including Windows features, command-line tools, security, mobile, macOS, Linux, networking, backups, scripting, and professionalism.

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1
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What Windows editions are testable on the 220-1102 exam?

Windows 10 and Windows 11 (all versions still in mainstream support).

2
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Which Windows 10 edition includes BitLocker and the ability to join a domain?

Windows 10 Pro.

3
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Name two features unique to Windows 10 Enterprise over Pro.

AppLocker and BranchCache (also granular UX control).

4
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What is the main purpose of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)?

Centralized authentication and management of users, computers, and resources.

5
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In Windows, what tool do you open with gpedit.msc?

The Local Group Policy Editor.

6
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Which Windows 10 editions can act as an RDP host?

Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 Enterprise (not Home).

7
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What Windows feature provides Full Disk Encryption?

BitLocker.

8
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What command shows TCP/IP configuration details in Windows?

ipconfig.

9
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Which command repairs logical NTFS errors?

chkdsk /f.

10
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What does the command sfc /scannow do?

Runs System File Checker to verify and repair protected system files.

11
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How do you force a Group Policy refresh from the command line?

gpupdate /force.

12
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Which Windows CLI tool copies entire directory trees and is newer than xcopy?

robocopy.

13
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Where can you quickly view CPU, memory, disk, and network usage in real-time?

Task Manager Performance tab.

14
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Which MMC snap-in lets you schedule scripts or programs in Windows?

Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc).

15
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What Control Panel applet allows enabling or disabling Windows features?

Programs and Features > Turn Windows features on or off.

16
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Which Windows Settings category lets you configure Night Light and display scaling?

System.

17
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What Windows tool indexes files to speed up searches?

Indexing Options.

18
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Describe ‘metered connection’ in Windows networking.

A setting that limits background data usage on slow or limited networks.

19
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What does APIPA assign when DHCP is unavailable?

A link-local address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.

20
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Name two VPN authentication factors that satisfy multi-factor requirements.

Examples: Something you know (password) + something you have (smart card) OR fingerprint plus PIN.

21
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Which partition style supports up to 128 partitions and requires UEFI?

GPT (GUID Partition Table).

22
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What is the default quick-format behavior during Windows setup?

Creates a new file table without overwriting existing data.

23
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What file system is optimized for USB flash drives and supports files larger than 4 GB?

exFAT.

24
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In a 64-bit Windows OS, where are 32-bit applications stored by default?

C:\Program Files (x86).

25
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Which macOS feature provides automated hourly, daily, and weekly backups?

Time Machine.

26
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What macOS utility displays logs like ‘Application’ and ‘System’ similar to Windows Event Viewer?

Console or the built-in log viewer within macOS (note: Event Viewer is Windows).

27
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Name two advantages of Linux as an OS.

Free cost and support for a wide variety of hardware (also active community).

28
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Which mobile OS feature allows wiping a lost phone remotely?

Remote wipe via locator services (Find My Device / Find My iPhone).

29
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What Windows security component prompts for elevation on administrative tasks?

User Account Control (UAC).

30
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Define least privilege.

Giving users and applications the minimum rights necessary to perform tasks.

31
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What type of malware encrypts user data and demands payment?

Ransomware.

32
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Give one method to prevent phishing success.

End-user awareness training (anti-phishing education).

33
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What is a zero-day exploit?

An attack using a vulnerability unknown to vendors or unpatched in the wild.

34
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Describe shoulder surfing.

Watching someone’s screen or keyboard to obtain confidential information.

35
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What social-engineering attack targets high-value executives?

Whaling (a form of spear phishing).

36
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Which Windows tool resets a PC while keeping user data?

‘Reset this PC’ in Recovery options with ‘Keep my files’.

37
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After malware removal, why re-enable System Restore?

To allow creation of clean restore points moving forward.

38
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What command shows current Linux directory?

pwd.

39
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Which Linux command changes file permissions?

chmod.

40
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What is the purpose of the Linux ‘sudo’ command?

Execute a command with elevated (superuser) privileges.

41
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Define TACACS+.

An authentication protocol (enhanced TACACS) that separates AAA functions; often used on Cisco devices.

42
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Which wireless security mode authenticates each user via RADIUS?

WPA2-Enterprise or WPA3-Enterprise (802.1X).

43
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What replaces the WPA2 PSK four-way handshake in WPA3?

SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals).

44
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What Windows feature scans for malware real-time without third-party software?

Microsoft Defender Antivirus (built-in).

45
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How do you create a firewall rule for an application in Windows?

Windows Defender Firewall > Allow an app or feature through Firewall (add exception).

46
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Name one Windows logon option besides password.

PIN, fingerprint (Windows Hello), facial recognition, security key, etc.

47
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Why disable AutoRun / AutoPlay for security?

Prevents automatic execution of potentially malicious media.

48
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What mobile security feature restricts device access attempts?

Screen lock with PIN/passcode/fingerprint and lockout after failed attempts.

49
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Define BYOD and state one security concern.

Bring Your Own Device; challenge: separating corporate data from personal data and enforcing policies.

50
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What is the first step in malware removal per CompTIA?

Identify and verify malware symptoms.

51
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During incident response, why maintain chain of custody?

To preserve evidence integrity for potential legal proceedings.

52
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What does an Acceptable Use Policy define?

Appropriate ways employees may use company IT assets and services.

53
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Which backup type copies only data changed since the last full backup?

Differential backup (if since last full) or Incremental (since last backup of any type); know distinction.

54
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Explain the 3-2-1 backup rule.

Keep 3 copies of data on 2 different media types, with 1 copy stored off-site.

55
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What is the purpose of a surge suppressor’s joule rating?

Indicates how much energy it can absorb before failing; higher is better.

56
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Why wear an ESD wrist strap when working inside PCs?

To equalize potential and prevent electrostatic discharge damaging components.

57
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What Windows utility shows OS version quickly?

winver.

58
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Which Windows edition includes ReFS support on desktops?

Windows 10 Pro for Workstations.

59
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Define BitLocker To Go.

BitLocker encryption applied to removable USB drives.

60
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What command formats a disk in Windows (use caution)?

format.

61
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What does the Linux ‘grep failed auth.log’ command do?

Searches the auth.log file for lines containing the word ‘failed’.

62
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What is APFS and where is it used?

Apple File System; default on macOS High Sierra and later, iOS/iPadOS.

63
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Which tool in Windows displays long-term performance statistics?

Performance Monitor (perfmon.msc).

64
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How can you disable a startup program in Windows 10?

Task Manager > Startup tab (toggle enable/disable).

65
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What Control Panel app lets you adjust virtual memory?

System > Advanced system settings > Performance Settings.

66
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Name two physical security devices that control building entry.

Badge reader, mantrap/vestibule (also bollards, biometric scanners).

67
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Why use fencing around a data center?

To create a physical perimeter and deter unauthorized access.

68
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Define Mobile Device Management (MDM).

Centralized administration of mobile devices enforcing policies, security, and configurations.

69
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What is a screened subnet formerly known as?

DMZ (Demilitarized Zone).

70
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What does disabling SSID broadcast actually provide?

Very little security; obscures but does not secure the wireless network.

71
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What Windows command shuts down and restarts in 20 seconds?

shutdown /r /t 20.

72
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Explain ‘Quick Assist’.

Windows 10/11 built-in tool for remote support replacing Remote Assistance.

73
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Why hash a forensic disk image?

To verify integrity; ensures the image matches the original data without alteration.

74
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What is the default port for SSH and why is it preferred over Telnet?

TCP 22; SSH encrypts traffic, Telnet sends in plaintext.

75
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Describe a spear-phishing attack.

Targeted phishing using specific personal or organizational details to appear legitimate.

76
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What is an evil-twin access point?

A rogue AP mimicking a legitimate SSID to intercept wireless traffic.

77
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Name one symptom of a keylogger infection.

Unusual or hidden processes, unexpected log files, or stolen credentials.

78
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What utility clears temporary files to free space in Windows?

Disk Cleanup (cleanmgr.exe).

79
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Which macOS feature stores passwords and certificates securely?

Keychain Access.

80
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How can you view hidden files in Windows File Explorer?

File Explorer Options > View tab > Show hidden files, folders, and drives.

81
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What does the Linux ‘apt-get update && apt-get upgrade’ sequence do?

Refreshes package lists and installs available updates on Debian-based systems.

82
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Why use VLANs and ACLs together?

Segment network traffic (VLAN) and control access (ACL) for security.

83
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What is the purpose of a rollback plan in change management?

Provide a predefined method to revert systems if a change fails.

84
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Define synthetic full backup.

A full backup constructed on backup storage by combining a previous full with subsequent incrementals, avoiding full data transfer.

85
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Which Windows command lists all active network connections?

netstat -a (additional switches: ‑n, ‑b).

86
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What two commands might you run to diagnose DNS issues in Windows?

nslookup and ipconfig /flushdns or ipconfig /displaydns.

87
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What does the acronym SOE stand for in system deployment?

Standard Operating Environment.

88
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Why is the ‘Run as Administrator’ option sometimes required?

To execute with elevated privileges needed for system changes or software installs.

89
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Which Windows Defender setting temporarily disables real-time protection?

Virus & threat protection settings > Real-time protection toggle.

90
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Give one reason to perform a clean OS install instead of an in-place upgrade.

Removes old files/configurations, eliminates malware, starts with fresh settings, or required when changing architecture (x86→x64).

91
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How does SIM hijacking threaten SMS-based MFA?

Attackers transfer victim’s phone number to their SIM, receiving MFA codes.

92
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What is the primary advantage of WPA3 over WPA2?

Stronger encryption (GCMP) and protection against brute-forcing pre-shared keys via SAE.

93
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Explain ‘boot sector virus’.

Malware that infects the boot loader area, running before the OS starts.

94
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Which tool in Windows 11 resets network settings to defaults?

Settings > Network & Internet > Advanced network settings > Network reset.

95
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What is FileVault’s purpose on macOS?

Provide full-disk encryption.

96
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Define ‘hash collision’.

Two different inputs producing the same hash value (should be computationally infeasible).

97
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Which Linux utility installs, deletes, or updates RPM packages?

yum (or dnf newer Fedora).

98
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Why use sandbox testing before production changes?

To see effects safely and verify rollback without impacting live systems.

99
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What is the function of a magnetometer at security checkpoints?

Detect concealed metal objects.

100
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What does the Windows ‘defrag’ utility do on spinning drives?

Rearranges file fragments to be contiguous, improving read/write speed.