Principles of Disease Final Exam Review Flashcards

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100 Practice flashcards for the PATH 3610 Final Exam Review based on the lecture notes on Principles of Disease.

Last updated 8:31 PM on 8/6/26
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99 Terms

1
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What is the 'compensated state' in tissue degeneration?

A state where inefficient function of a degenerate tissue is sufficient to maintain life due to compensatory mechanisms.

2
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How is lethal cell injury (necrosis) primarily characterized?

By certain recognizable microscopic changes in a living organism, representing local cell death.

3
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What is the most efficient energy source for normal cells?

High-energy phosphate bonds of ATPATP.

4
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Which process requires oxygen to phosphorylate ADPADP into ATPATP?

Oxidative phosphorylation.

5
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Which condition is defined as insufficient oxygen specifically within cells?

Hypoxia.

6
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What is hypoxemia?

A decreased ability of the blood to carry oxygen, such as in anemia or COCO poisoning.

7
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Which energy substrate is the only source for brain neurons in a normal physiological state?

Glucose.

8
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How does the toxin cyanide cause ATPATP depletion?

It interferes with cytochrome oxidase, the final enzyme in the respiratory chain.

9
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What causes the 'cloudy swelling' appearance in cell degeneration?

Lack of ATPATP leads to dysfunction of the sodium pump, causing sodium and water to move into the cell.

10
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Why does a switch to anaerobic glycolysis exacerbate cellular injury?

It produces lactic acid, which lowers intracellular pHpH and damages lysosomal membranes.

11
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Which cells are first affected by defective energy production?

Cells with the highest metabolic rate and oxygen demand, such as brain cells.

12
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What specific pigment represents damaged cell membrane deposited in the cytoplasm?

Lipofuscin.

13
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What is the composition of lipofuscin?

Phospholipid and protein complexes resulting from free-radical peroxidation.

14
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In the liver, fatty degeneration (steatosis) involves the accumulation of which substance?

Triglycerides (TGsTGs).

15
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How does the liver appear grossly when affected by fat accumulation?

Pale/beige, enlarged, friable, and greasy in texture.

16
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What is the term for excess iron accumulating in tissues?

Hemosiderin.

17
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Which inherited defect in iron metabolism leads to the accumulation of free ferric iron?

Hemochromatosis.

18
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Which form of bilirubin is water-soluble and conjugated in the liver?

Bilirubin conjugated to glucuronide.

19
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What are the three mechanisms that can result in jaundice (icterus)?

Hemolysis, hepatocellular dysfunction, and bile flow obstruction (cholestasis).

20
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What is the clinical term for neuronal dysfunction caused by bilirubin accumulation in the brain?

Kernicterus.

21
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What is a somatic mutation?

A mutation involving tissue cells that is not passed onto offspring.

22
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What are the two microscopic morphologic changes indicating reversible cell injury?

Cellular swelling and fatty change.

23
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How many hours must pass before changes of necrosis are visible by light microscopy?

6-8 hours\text{6-8 hours}.

24
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What is enzymatic fat necrosis typically associated with?

The release of pancreatic lipase into the abdominal mesentery and omentum.

25
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What creates the 'white, chalky' appearance in enzymatic fat necrosis?

Fatty acids complexing with plasma calcium ions to form Ca2+Ca^{2+} soaps.

26
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Why does necrotic cytoplasm stain more intensely 'pink' with hematoxylin & eosin (H&E) stains?

Due to cytoplasmic protein denaturation and the loss of ribosomes.

27
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What is dystrophic calcification?

Abnormal deposition of calcium salts in dead or dying tissues despite normal serum calcium levels.

28
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What is the 'Suicide Bag Hypothesis'?

The proposition that the release of lysosomal enzymes causes cell death (now known to be a result of death).

29
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What is pyknosis?

The process where nuclear chromatin clumps and the nucleus becomes smaller and more densely staining.

30
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Define karrhyorhexis.

The process where a pyknotic nucleus breaks up into fragments.

31
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Define karrhyolysis.

The complete lysis of a nucleus due to lysosomal enzymes.

32
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What is gangrene?

Cell and tissue death usually following a pattern of blood flow loss, often darkly discoloured and demarcated.

33
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Why are necrotic tissues ideal growth media for secondary infections?

They lack blood flow, making them inaccessible to inflammatory cells and the immune system.

34
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Which specific form of programmed cell death is active and requires energy?

Apoptosis.

35
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Which enzymes mediate the execution phase of apoptosis?

Caspases.

36
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What is autophagy?

A process where a cell recycles its own non-essential organelles to provide energy.

37
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What causes 'rigor mortis' after death?

ATPATP reduction in muscles.

38
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What is 'putrefaction'?

Post mortem fermentation caused by saprophytic bacteria, often producing gas bubbles.

39
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How is 'autolysis' distinguished from 'necrosis' microscopically?

Autolysis generally lacks the presence of inflammatory cells.

40
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In a normal capillary, what happens at the arteriolar end?

Vascular hydrostatic pressure exceeds vascular oncotic pressure, driving fluid into tissues.

41
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What is the main protein responsible for plasma oncotic pressure?

Albumin.

42
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Which term describes fluid that has moved out of the capillary through endothelial pores?

Ultrafiltrate.

43
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What is 'pitting edema'?

Skin edema where focal pressure leaves a depression or 'pit'.

44
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What is 'ascites'?

A watery effusion specifically in the peritoneal cavity.

45
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What is 'anasarca'?

Massive edema involving the whole body and its cavities.

46
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What causes the edema in right-sided ventricular heart failure?

Venous blood 'backs up' systemically, increasing vascular hydrostatic pressure.

47
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What is 'pulmonary edema'?

Fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces of the lungs, often due to left-sided heart failure.

48
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In the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway, what is the effect of aldosterone?

It causes sodium and water retention, increasing blood volume and vascular hydrostatic pressure.

49
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What is 'hypoproteinemia'?

Decreased blood protein levels, which leads to decreased plasma oncotic pressure and generalized edema.

50
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Small 'pinpoint' focal hemorrhages are known as what?

Petechiae.

51
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Larger areas of hemorrhage, commonly known as bruises, are called what?

Ecchymoses.

52
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What is a 'hematoma'?

A large 'blood blister' where blood has pooled within a tissue.

53
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What is the term for coughing up blood?

Hemoptysis.

54
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What are the four primary responses in normal hemostasis?

Transient vasoconstriction, primary hemostasis, secondary hemostasis, and permanent plug formation.

55
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Which plasma protein connects platelets to form aggregates during primary hemostasis?

Fibrinogen.

56
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Which vitamin is required for the synthesis of prothrombin and factors VIIVII, IXIX, and XX?

Vitamin KK.

57
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What is the function of 'plasmin' in the fibrinolytic cascade?

It breaks down fibrin and interferes with its polymerization to dissolve clots.

58
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What is the most common inherited sex-linked coagulation disorder?

Hemophilia AA (deficiency in Factor VIIIVIII).

59
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What are the three factors of Virchow’s Triad?

(1) Endothelial injury, (2) alteration in blood flow, and (3) hypercoagulability.

60
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Which term describes a lack of blood supply to a tissue?

Ischemia.

61
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What is an 'infarct'?

A localized area of necrosis resulting from inadequate blood supply.

62
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Which organs are characterized by a 'dual blood supply'?

The lungs (pulmonary and bronchial) and the liver (hepatic and portal).

63
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What is 'reperfusion injury'?

The exacerbation of tissue injury that occurs when blood flow is restored to an ischemic area.

64
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Define Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DICDIC).

A thrombohemorrhagic syndrome resulting from widespread activation of coagulation and subsequent depletion of factors.

65
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What are the five main causes of shock?

Hypovolemia, Septic, Cardiogenic, Neurogenic, and Anaphylactic.

66
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What is the final common path for all types of shock?

A reduction in tissue perfusion.

67
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What are the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?

Redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function.

68
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Which chemical mediator is released by mast cells to cause capillary dilation?

Histamine.

69
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How do exudates differ from transudates regarding protein content?

Exudates have a higher protein content and higher specific gravity due to increased vascular permeability.

70
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Which large protein, formed from fibrinogen, aids in localizing inflammatory processes?

Fibrin.

71
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Which blood cell type is the first to arrive at a site of acute inflammation?

Neutrophils.

72
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What process describes leukocytes squeezing through endothelial junctions?

Diapedesis (or transmigration).

73
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What is 'chemotaxis'?

The directional migration of inflammatory cells along a chemical concentration gradient.

74
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Define 'opsonization'.

The process of coating a particle with antibodies or complement to enhance phagocytosis.

75
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Which drug family inhibits the conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins?

NSAIDsNSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs).

76
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What is a 'left shift' in a CBCCBC?

The presence of increased numbers of immature neutrophils in the blood, indicating high demand.

77
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What is 'suppurative' or 'purulent' inflammation?

Inflammation characterized by the formation of pus.

78
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How is chronic inflammation characterized?

By mononuclear cell types (macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells), tissue fibrosis, and angiogenesis.

79
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What are the hallmark cells of granulomatous inflammation?

Epithelioid cells (activated macrophages).

80
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A fragment of devitalized bone that persists in chronic osteomyelitis is called what?

A sequestrum.

81
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What is 'amyloid'?

An abnormally folded, insoluble βpleated\beta-pleated fibrillary protein deposited in the interstitium.

82
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Which virus is the primary cause of AIDS?

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIVHIV).

83
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Which immune cell does HIVHIV show a specific tropism for?

CD4+CD4^{+} TT cells.

84
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What is the difference between Labile, Stable, and Permanent cells?

Labile cells divide constantly; Stable cells divide only if needed; Permanent cells cannot divide after fetal life.

85
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Which tissue type is the 'functional' part of an organ?

Parenchymal cells.

86
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What is 'granulation tissue'?

Pink, soft, vascularized immature connective tissue consisting of fibroblasts and new capillaries.

87
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What is 'Keloid' formation?

The development of abnormal nodular masses of collagen during skin healing.

88
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Which infectious agents are 'obligate intracellular organisms' lacking nucleic acids?

Prions.

89
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Which bacteria lack a cell wall and are known for evading the immune system?

Mycoplasmas.

90
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What is 'Septicemia'?

Disease resulting from the presence of bacteria or their toxins in the bloodstream.

91
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What occurs in 'Hamburger Disease' (E. coli O157:H7E.\text{ }coli\text{ }O157:H7)?

Verocytotoxin causes damage to vascular endothelial cells, leading to hemorrhagic colitis and HUSHUS.

92
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What are Koch's Postulates used for?

Criteria used to establish an etiologic association between a microorganism and a disease.

93
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Distinguish between a definitive and an intermediate host.

The definitive host harbors the adult/reproducing parasite; the intermediate host harbors immature forms.

94
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What is 'Hyperplasia'?

An increase in tissue size due to an increase in the number of cells.

95
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What is 'Metaplasia'?

A reversible change where one mature cell type is replaced by another mature cell type.

96
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What is the 'guardian of the genome'?

The TP53TP53 tumor suppressor gene.

97
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How are benign tumors of epithelial origin named if they originate from glandular tissue?

Adenomas.

98
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What suffix is used for malignant tumors of mesenchymal origin?

-sarcoma.

99
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What does the 'TNM' system stand for in cancer staging?

TT (tumor size), NN (lymph node involvement), and MM (metastases).