Anatomy & Physiology I: Cumulative Final Exam

Practice questions from unit exams 1-4 (chapters 1-15)

Which of the following is NOT a major function of the integumentary system?

Locomotion

Cyanosis can be a sign of poor oxygenation of blood.

True

Which cell type in the epidermis produces a protein called keratin?

Keratinocyte

Match each stage of wound repair with an event that happens during that stage:

Regeneration

Epithelium thickens and returns to normal

Match each stage of wound repair with an event that happens during that stage:

Inflamation

Scab forms

Match each stage of wound repair with an event that happens during that stage:

Organization

Fibroblasts strengthen the wound with new collagen fibers

Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers

False

Which subclass of connective tissue is widely distributed under epithelial layers and serves to cushion and protect organs?

Areolar connective tissue

The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ______ anatomy.

Gross

Which organ is found in the right lower quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?

Appendix

_______ membranes are wet and line the body cavities that are open to the exterior.

Mucous

Which structure contracts to cause hairs to stand up on end (causing goosebumps)?

Arrector pili

Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity; that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface.

True

Which organ system is responsible for transporting gasses, nutrients, and wastes throughout the body?

Cardiovascular system

Which of the following best describes the sebaceous glands?

They produce an oily secretion that is bacteria-killing

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which layer is responsible for cell division and replacement?

Stratum basale

Match each tissue type with its correct characteristic:

Cardiac muscle

Regenerates poorly

Match each tissue type with its correct characteristic:

Tendons and ligaments

Regenerates a moderate amount

Match each tissue type with its correct characteristic:

Stratified Squamous Epithelium

Regenerates very well

Which skin pigment is the only one produced in the skin?

Melanin

The most common but least dangerous form of skin cancer is ______.

Basal Cell Carcinoma

Which component of a homeostatic control system detects a stimulus?

Receptor

Select the true statement below.

Cardiac muscle cells are branched but skeletal muscle cells are not branched

The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the flexture lines in the skin?

The reticular layer

Keratin is a protein that makes fingernails hard.

True

Which tissue class is concentrated in the epidermis?

Epithelial tissue

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?

Simple squamous

Organs that work together to acomplish a common purpose make up _______.

an organ system

Fill in the following sentence with the correct anatomical direction.

The thumb is________ to the pinky finger.

lateral

Choose the one option that is a function of connective tissues.

Insulation

Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?

Thoracic cavity

Exocrine glands secrete substances into tissues

False

Negative feedback reduces the intensity of a stimulus and brings a system closer to its set point

True

How do their mucosal linings contribute to the functions of the paranasal sinuses? Choose the one best answer.

The mucosal lining helps warm and humidify the air.

Which cartilage type is concentrated at joints such as the knees and vertebrae?

Fibrocartilage

One of the key roles of facial bones is to______.

form the structural framework of the face

Which of the following best describes the source of intramembranous ossification?

Bone tissue forms fibrous membrane

Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy

Lordosis

In which situation would bursa most likely be present?

Where skin, muscle, or tendon rubs over bone

A cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is _____.

an osteoblast

Which of the following is the single most important hormone for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

Growth hormone

_____ is the most abundant type of cartilage and provides support, flexibility, and resilience.

Hyaline cartilage

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

Communication

Choose the option that best describes the articular cartilage of a synovial joint.

Hyaline cartilage that protects the ends of long bones

Which statement correctly links a synovial range of motion with its name.

A multiaxial joint permits movements in all 3 planes

Formation of the bony callus in fracture repair is followed by _____.

bone remodeling

A function of a perforating canal of an osteon is to _____.

connect blood vessels to different structures within compact bone

Which of the following correctly describes bursitis?

Inflammation of the bursa

A bone with approximately the same width, length, and height is most likely a ____.

short bone

The shaft of a long bone is properly called the ____.

diaphysis

Which of the following fibrous joints is found between bones of the cranium?

Suture

Of what shape of synovial joint is the shoulder joint an example?

Ball-and-socket

What is the primary reason cranial bones form a closed cavity around the brain?

Choose the one best answer

To protect the brain from injury

What distinguishes a symphysis from a synchondrosis?

Symphysis is made of fibrocartilage, synchondrosis of hyaline cartilage

Choose the example that best describes a gliding movement at a synovial joint.

Sliding of carpal bones of wrist over each other

Which type of bone marking is described as an outward bulge of bone surface and serves as an attachment site for muscles?

Projection

Immobilization can be an effective treatment for a sprain

True

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

Growth hormone

The hyoid bone is unique because it _____.

is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone

The axial skeleton includes _____.

the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

Which of the following best defines an articulation in the human body?

A location where two or more bones meet

Which of the following is a FALSE statement about a synovial joint?

The articular labrum increases the depth of the shoulder joint

_____ contractions are muscle contractions that result in a change in muscle length.

Isotonic

The connective tissue sheath that surrounds individual muscle fibers is called _____.

endomysium

Which substance exits a skeletal muscle fiber during the repolarization phase of an action potential?

Potassium

Which of the following is NOT a step of excitation-contraction coupling?

Calcium binds to myosin to cause detachment from an actin filament

The sliding filament model of contraction involves _______.

actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

Which of the following would NOT increase the force of skeletal muscle contraction?

Sarcomere loosened to less than resting length

The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the _____.

sarcolemma

What would happen to the cross bridge cycle if ATP was removed from the muscle cell?

The myosin heads would remain attached to the thin filaments

Regeneration of ATP by the ______ pathway requires oxygen.

areobic

Which of the following is NOT a reason for excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

ATP is being converted to ADP

Which of the following is happening during the relaxation period of a muscle twitch?

Calcium enters the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Select the best description of excitability of muscle tissue

Ability of a cell to receive and respond to a stimulus by changing its membrane potential

True or False. Skeletal muscle is the only muscle type that is voluntary

True

Which of the following is NOT a result of endurance (aerobic) exercise?

Increased size and strength of existing muscle cells

One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.

True

Which type of skeletal muscle fibers use aerobic respiration as their main source of ATP?

Oxidative fibers

Which of the following best describes summation in a muscle fiber?

Increased tension produced by a muscle fiber when a second stimulus arrives before the fiber completely relaxes.

Which of the following is NOT true about the limbic system?

Filters out repetitive or familiar stimuli

The cerebellum is part of the brain that regulates smooth and coordinated movements.

True

A synapse is a Junction between a neuron and a second like cell like another neuron or a muscle fiber.

True

Graded potentials can travel all the way down an axon without losing strength.

False

Which of the following would increase the speed of action potential propagation?

Myelination of the axon

Which of the following best describes an effect of acetycholine?

Major neurotransmitter at neuromuscular junctions

Which of the following is NOT a function of the basal ganglia?

Processing visual information

The closer the distance between the severed ends of a damaged axon, the higher the chance of regeneration.

True

Spinal cord injury between levels T1 and L1 of the spinal cord will typically cause paraplegia.

True

The division of the autonomic nervous system that promotes activity is called the _______ system.

Sympathetic

Which of the following best describes a concussion?

A (usually) temporary alteration in brain function following a blow to the head. Also known as mild TBI.

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is built with long preganglionic fibers that project to short postganglionic fibers close to the effector organs?

Parasympathetic

Which division of the nervous system includes single neurons that extend all the way from the CNS to the effector organs?

Somatic nervous system

What happens in the anterior (ventral) horns of the spinal cord?

Motor neurons are present

An EPSP is a small depolarization of a postsynaptic cell that makes it more likely to fire an action potential.

True

Which part of the diencephalon is a relay station for inputs to the cerebral cortex?

Thalamus

_______ ion channels open in response to a changing membrane potential.

Voltage-gated

The detection of a stimulus by a sensory receptor is called _______.

sensation

What effect will the parasympathetic nervous system have on the heart?

Slows down the heart

The _______ encloses axons and their myelin sheaths.

endoneurium

_______ is the major cation outside the resting neuron.

Sodium (Na⁺)