620 extraction quiz

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39 Terms

1
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what does DNA extraction involve?

separating nucleic acids in cells away from proteins and other cellular material

2
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what are the main methods for DNA extraction?

organic, Chelex, sold-phase

3
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what are two commonly found PCR inhibitors?

hemoglobin + indigo dye

4
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advantages of organic (phenol-chloroform) extraction

most effective way to obtain high molecular weight DNA

5
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disadvantages of organic (phenol-chloroform) extraction

uses toxic chemicals

6
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SDS full name

sodium dodecysulfate

7
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general process for organic extraction

SDS/proK/EDTA, incubate + centrifuge, phenol chlorofrom, vortex + centrifuge, transfer aqueous phase

8
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advantages of Chelex extraction

inexpensive, chelating-resin suspension added directly to sample, more rapid, fewer steps so less chance of contamination, removes PCR inhibitors

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disadvantages of Chelex extraction

denature double-stranded DNA so can only be followed with PCR-based analysis

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general Chelex extraction process

wash, remove supernatant, add chelex suspension, incubate at 100C

11
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advantages of FTA paper extraction

consistent results without quantification, procedure may be automated

12
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disadvantages of FTA paper extraction

dry paper punches can jump between wells

13
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general FTA paper extraction process

apply blood to paper, take punch, wash with buffer, remove supernatant

14
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what is solid-phase DNA extraction?

DNA selectively bound to substrate like silica beads/particles (in presence of high chaotropic salts)

15
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types of solid-phase extractions

QIAGEN columns, DNA IQ, PrepFiler

16
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robotic platform that automates solid-phase extraction process

QIAGEN EZ1

17
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what is differential extraction?

separation of epithelial and sperm cells

18
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DTT full name

dithiothreitol

19
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general differential extraction process

add SDS/EDTA/proK, incubate + centrifuge, remove supernatant (non-sperm fraction), add SDS/EDTA/proK/DTT, sperm fraction

20
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other methods to separate epithelial + sperm cells (if azsospermic/absence of spermatozoa)

selective cell degradtion, selective PCR (Y-STRs), selective cell capture (laser)

21
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what is extraction?

taking biological material, adding reagents to lyse open cells, cellular components released into solution, everything else washed away

22
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examples of degradation

UV radiation + heat

23
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___________ inhibts DNA itself, __________ affect amplification

degradation ; inhibitors

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Towson uses the ___ robot and _______________ kit

EZ1 ; DNA investigator

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what is the purpose of G2 buffer?

lyse open cells

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what is the purpose of proteinase K?

breaks down histones/proteins that protect the DNA

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set up of the EZ1 robot

elution tubes in row 1, pipette tips + holders in row 2, nothing in row 3, sample tubes in row 4

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chaotropic agent

guanidinium thiocynate

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EDTA full name

ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid

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robot process

adds lysis buffer, adds salt, lowers pH, DNA binds to salt bridge (decreases salt, raises pH)

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DNA is eluted using an _____________, which is alkaline (raises the pH) which _________ the affinity of the DNA to the beads

elution buffer ; decreases

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___ breaks down the disulfide bonds in the sperm head

dithiothretiol (DTT)

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all evidence samples must be completed _______ processing any standards

prior to

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pipetting QA + QC

use correct range pipette, use clean tip for each sample/reagent/master mix, never pass pipette tip over another sample, check for bubbles, pipettes are calibrated every six months

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how can contamination be prevented?

wear + change gloves as needed, bleach all work areas before + after work, lay down kraft paper, clean utensils with ethanol between uses, only have one tube open at a time, only have one envelope open at a time

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need _ QC per tube type

1

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other QC measures

label tubes prior to cutting, tube check, add DNA stable, store extracts in refrigerator when complete

38
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trace protcol

used on evidence only, as much DNA as possible from evidence sample

39
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tip dance protocol

for known references