Anxiety Disorders

The difference between anxiety and fear is that

a) anxiety is a response to immediate danger, whereas fear is defined as apprehension over an anticipated problem.

b) anxiety is immediate, whereas fear is anticipated.

c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, whereas fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.

d) anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not.

c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, whereas fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.

Kelvin is hiking along the Appalachian Trail when he spots a bear crossing the path about 50 feet in front of him. Which of the following reactions is most adaptive in this scenario?

a) anxiety

b) anger

c) panic

d) fear

d) fear

Anxiety often involves __________ arousal, and fear involves __________ arousal.

a) high; low

b) high; moderate

c) moderate; low

d) moderate; high

d) moderate; high

Research suggests that, to improve performance on laboratory tests, it is best for participants to

a) experience a great deal of anxiety.

b) experience a small amount of anxiety.

c) experience no anxiety.

d) experience a small amount of anxiety as well as fear.

b) experience a small amount of anxiety.

Which of the following is categorized in DSM-5 as an anxiety disorder?

a) chronic stress disorder

b) specific fear disorder

c) generalized anxiety disorder

d) social introversion disorder

c) generalized anxiety disorder

In DSM-5, which disorder would be included in the chapter on anxiety disorders?

a) avoidant disorder

b) obsessive-compulsive disorder

c) panic disorder

d) trauma-related disorder

c) panic disorder

As a group, anxiety disorders

a) are unlikely to be comorbid.

b) are among the least costly psychiatric disorders to society.

c) cause few interpersonal problems.

d) are the most common type of psychiatric diagnosis.

d) are the most common type of psychiatric diagnosis.

The main criterion that differentiates generalized anxiety disorder in children from the disorder in adults is

a) the number of symptoms that must be present.

b) the length of time that the symptoms must be present.

c) the symptom clusters that are involved.

d) the extent to which symptoms disrupt usual life activities.

a) the number of symptoms that must be present.

9. Anxiety disorders result in marked impairment or distress resulting from which of the following?

a) high fear and high anxiety

b) excessively frequent or severe anxiety

c) the same set of anxiety symptoms

d) panic

b) excessively frequent or severe anxiety

Darrell is persistently and excessively afraid of snakes. Whenever he sees a snake, he feels intense anxiety, and thus he avoids snakes at all costs. Darrell realizes, however, that this fear is unrealistic. Darrell most likely has

a) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

b) social anxiety disorder.

c) a specific phobia.

d) panic disorder.

c) a specific phobia.

Animal phobias typically begin in

a) infancy.

b) childhood.

c) adolescence.

d) adulthood.

b) childhood.

Lorenzo is fearful of interactions with others and avoids eating in public. Lorenzo most likely has

a) a specific phobia.

b) panic disorder with agoraphobia.

c) social anxiety disorder.

d) paranoia.

c) social anxiety disorder.

An individual diagnosed with social anxiety disorder

a) exhibits paranoid symptoms, believing others are plotting to hurt him or her.

b) experiences anxiety about having panic attacks in public.

c) is terrified of being in public places and may become housebound.

d) has a fear of interactions with unfamiliar people or social scrutiny.

d) has a fear of interactions with unfamiliar people or social scrutiny.

Julie has a diagnosis of social anxiety disorder. If she is like about one-third of others with a diagnosis of social anxiety disorder, she also meets the diagnostic criteria for

a) schizotypal personality disorder.

b) borderline personality disorder.

c) avoidant personality disorder.

d) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

c) avoidant personality disorder.

Compared to specific phobias, social anxiety disorder tends to

a) be more pervasive and interfere more with daily life.

b) occur only late in life and be associated with brain dysfunction.

c) be easily treated with therapy and very rarely recur.

d) have a very brief duration and cause little disruption.

a) be more pervasive and interfere more with daily life.

Levi is fearful of most social situations, whereas Andreas is fearful only of giving speeches. Given this, one could infer that

a) only Levi has social anxiety disorder.

b) only Andreas has social anxiety disorder.

c) neither Levi nor Andreas has social anxiety disorder.

d) both Levi and Andreas have social anxiety disorder.

d) both Levi and Andreas have social anxiety disorder.

Social anxiety disorder generally begins during

a) early childhood.

b) middle childhood.

c) adolescence.

d) early adulthood.

c) adolescence.

Depersonalization and derealization are common symptoms of which disorder?

a) obsessive-compulsive disorder

b) specific phobias

c) social anxiety disorder

d) panic disorder

d) panic disorder

Agoraphobia is characterized by anxiety about

a) being in unfamiliar places.

b) being embarrassed by saying or doing something foolish in front of others.

c) having strangers misinterpret one’s symptoms as a heart attack.

d) being in places from which escape would be difficult or embarrassing.

d) being in places from which escape would be difficult or embarrassing.

Edna reports such high levels of anxiety about being out in public that she could not leave her house, and she required sessions in her home when she began therapy. It is likely that

a) Edna has agoraphobia.

b) Edna has generalized anxiety disorder

c) Edna is faking her symptoms to gain attention.

d) Edna has severe panic disorder but is able to cope with the symptoms.

a) Edna has agoraphobia.

Panic attacks

a) occur only in people with panic disorder, by definition.

b) can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.

c) occur with greatest frequency among people with schizophrenia.

d) occur primarily in people with agoraphobia.

b) can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.

The two types of medications most commonly used to treat anxiety are

a) mood stabilizers and antidepressants.

b) antidepressants and benzodiazepines.

c) benzodiazepines and anticonvulsants.

d) anticonvulsants and beta-blockers.

b) antidepressants and benzodiazepines.

The worries of people with GAD

a) are generally limited to physiological concerns.

b) are similar to the worries of most people, just more severe.

c) are the result of another, more severe disorder.

d) are generally considered strange and unique.

b) are similar to the worries of most people, just more severe.

GAD is not diagnosed if

a) the symptoms are better accounted for by another disorder.

b) the symptoms are present for over a year.

c) the person reports excessive worrying and feeling on edge.

d) the person experiences pervasive anxiety and worry.

a) the symptoms are better accounted for by another disorder.

What proportion of people with one anxiety disorder meet the criteria for another anxiety disorder at some point in their lifetime?

a) more than half

b) about two-thirds

c) nearly three-quarters

d) nearly all

a) more than half

The disorder that is most commonly found to be comorbid with anxiety disorders is

a) PTSD.

b) bipolar disorder.

c) avoidant personality disorder.

d) major depression.

d) major depression.

It is believed that women are more likely than men to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders because they are more

a) likely to face their fears directly.

b) likely to feel in control.

c) willing to report their symptoms.

d) willing to take charge.

c) willing to report their symptoms.

According to the text, which of the following is a hypothesis about why women are more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders than men?

a) Women may show more biological reactivity to stress than men.

b) Women tend to be pressured to face their fears head-on.

c) Women are more likely than men to feel in control of situations.

d) Women tend to seek diagnoses in order to get sympathy.

a) Women may show more biological reactivity to stress than men.

The central feature of generalized anxiety disorder is

a) uncontrollable worry.

b) panic attacks.

c) social anxiety.

d) avoidance.

a) uncontrollable worry.

In Japan, taijin kyofusho involves

a) the fear of embarrassing others.

b) the fear of going outside.

c) the fear of rice.

d) the fear of closed spaces.

a) the fear of embarrassing others.

In China, the fear of loss of semen is called

a) shenkui.

b) kayak-angst.

c) taijin kyofusho.

d) susto.

a) shenkui.

In Latin America, fright-illness is also known as

a) susto.

b) taijin kyofusho.

c) kayak-angst.

d) dhat syndrome.

a) susto.

The diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder requires that children meet

a) fewer criteria than adults.

b) more criteria than adults.

c) the same number of criteria as adults.

d) different criteria than adults.

a) fewer criteria than adults.

Individuals with anxiety disorders

a) have a weak fear circuit.

b) have fear circuits that are unresponsive.

c) have an overactive fear circuit.

d) have fear circuits that respond inconsistently.

c) have an overactive fear circuit.

How much of the risk for anxiety disorders in the population is accounted for by genetic factors?

a) 10–20%

b) 30–40%

c) 50–60%

d) 70–80%

c) 50–60%

Mowrer’s two-factor model of anxiety disorders involves classical conditioning and

a) imitation.

b) operant conditioning.

c) observation.

d) habituation.

b) operant conditioning.

37. Imagine that a man is bitten by a dog and then develops a phobia of dogs. The dog bite would be considered the

a) UCS.

b) UCR.

c) CS.

d) CR.

a) UCS.

Josie has panic disorder, while Herbie does not have an anxiety disorder. They are both shown pictures of threatening faces. The researchers studying Josie’s and Herbie’s brain responses while they look at the pictures will most likely note that

a) Josie’s amygdala is more active than Herbie’s.

b) Josie’s medial prefrontal cortex is more active than Herbie’s.

c) Josie has lower levels of norepinephrine than does Herbie.

d) Josie has less activity in the anterior cingulate cortex than does Herbie.

a) Josie’s amygdala is more active than Herbie’s.

Della’s baby, Sophie, participated in a study that indicated that Sophie was more likely than others to be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder in adolescence. What did this study most likely find?

a) Sophie had low levels of amygdala activity.

b) Sophie had high levels of behavioral inhibition.

c) Sophie had a high tolerance for uncertainty.

d) Sophie had low levels of neuroticism.

b) Sophie had high levels of behavioral inhibition.

In infants, behavioral inhibition is defined as the

a) tendency to experience neuroticism.

b) inability to inhibit one’s behavioral reactions to others.

c) tendency to become agitated when faced with novel stimuli.

d) inability to regulate symptoms of anxiety.

c) tendency to become agitated when faced with novel stimuli.

In terms of the social environment’s role in the development of anxiety disorders, which of the following statements is true?

a) Negative life events often buffer against the development of anxiety disorders.

b) Negative life events often precede the onset of anxiety disorders.

c) Negative life events are unrelated to the onset of anxiety disorders.

d) Negative life events can protect individuals, but only if they are severe.

b) Negative life events often precede the onset of anxiety disorders.

To protect against feared consequences of anxiety, people will often engage in

a) safety behaviors.

b) protection behaviors.

c) regressive behaviors.

d) recessive behaviors.

a) safety behaviors.

People with low __________ appear to be at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders.

a) perceived control

b) intrinsic defenses

c) anxiety thresholds

d) cognitive complexity

a) perceived control

An individual with a snake phobia would be most likely to pay attention to which of the following words?

a) orange

b) venom

c) sad

d) table

b) venom

Neuroticism is best defined as the tendency to

a) feel depressed.

b) feel anxious.

c) react to events with greater than average negative affect.

d) react to even negative events in an optimistic way.

c) react to events with greater than average negative affect.

Lola is low in neuroticism. Compared with people who have high levels of neuroticism, Lola

a) is more likely to experience anxiety and depression.

b) is less likely to develop an anxiety disorder.

c) is probably more consumed by a focus on possible threats.

d) is more likely to have OCD.

b) is less likely to develop an anxiety disorder.

Which of the following puts people at greater risk for developing an anxiety disorder?

a) having a perception that they have no control over their environment

b) having a comorbid diagnosis of schizophrenia

c) having low levels of neuroticism

d) having low levels of activity in the fear circuit

a) having a perception that they have no control over their environment

Which of the following might buffer someone against developing an anxiety disorder?

a) repeated early life experiences of having control

b) previous experiences of lack of control

c) being controlled by an understanding parent

d) having limited early life experiences

a) repeated early life experiences of having control

Dr. Fernandez randomly assigned puppies to one of two conditions. Group 1 grew up with the ability to choose when they would receive dog biscuits, while Group 2 had no control over when they would receive dog biscuits. In this scenario, Group 2 would be

a) more likely to be aggressive.

b) less prone to neuroticism.

c) more likely to show high levels of behavioral inhibition.

d) more likely to display high levels of anxiety.

d) more likely to display high levels of anxiety.

Researchers who spend a long period of time training those with GAD to focus on a positive set of words have found that participants

a) are more likely to report anxiety following the training.

b) do not experience any changes in their levels of anxiety following the training.

c) report less anxiety in both interviews and self-report measures following the training.

d) report less anxiety in interviews but more anxiety in self-report measures after the training.

c) report less anxiety in both interviews and self-report measures following the training.

The second factor of Mowrer’s two-factor model explains why

a) a person’s dog phobia never ceases.

b) a person develops a dog phobia.

c) a person reduces his or her fear of dogs.

d) a person who develops a dog phobia is able to have a pet dog.

a) a person’s dog phobia never ceases.

Laboratory studies have provided evidence for the theory that

a) chronic anxiety creates negative cognitions.

b) lack of control typically decreases anxiety.

c) the way we focus our attention can influence feelings of anxiety.

d) tolerance for ambiguity is associated with elevated anxiety.

c) the way we focus our attention can influence feelings of anxiety.

One problem with Mowrer’s original two-factor model of phobias is that phobias tend to develop

a) following traumatic experiences.

b) only with respect to certain stimuli.

c) equally in all age groups.

d) in people not otherwise anxious.

b) only with respect to certain stimuli.

Marcia developed a fear of high places after she saw someone fall from a bridge. Mowrer would say that she developed her fear through which of the following?

a) operant conditioning

b) repression

c) modeling

d) sensitization

c) modeling

Which of the following is a possible explanation for why people typically do not fear coconuts, flowers, or strawberries?

a) During evolution, exposure to such stimuli was not life-threatening.

b) They are not poisonous.

c) They are not as common as stimuli such as blood or spiders.

d) People experience prepared learning in response to such stimuli.

a) During evolution, exposure to such stimuli was not life-threatening.

After viewing tapes of monkeys apparently showing fear of snakes, lambs, and flowers, the monkeys who viewed these tapes were fearful only of snakes. This provides only partial support for __________ and better support for __________.

a) modeling; classical conditioning

b) vicarious learning; avoidance learning

c) modeling; prepared learning

d) prepared learning; diathesis

c) modeling; prepared learning

Doug was badly frightened by a large, aggressive snake when he was a child, and he now has a snake phobia. Martha, however, despite having been severely shocked by putting her finger in an electric outlet, has no fear of these sockets. This inconsistency is explained by

a) prepared learning.

b) systematic desensitization.

c) irrational beliefs.

d) avoidance conditioning.

a) prepared learning.

Ivan reported a traumatic history with dogs, resulting in his fear of dogs. Sven also reported a traumatic history with dogs, but he does not have a fear of dogs. These findings provide support for

a) a genetic vulnerability toward phobia.

b) a preparedness view of phobia.

c) a psychoanalytic theory of phobia.

d) the two-factor model.

a) a genetic vulnerability toward phobia.

Which of the following is an example of a safety behavior?

a) seeking treatment

b) taking prescribed medication

c) exposing oneself to a feared stimulus

d) avoiding eye contact

d) avoiding eye contact

Why is avoidance behavior so often maintained?

a) People do not want to overcome their fears.

b) Such behavior reduces the amount of fear a person experiences.

c) Friends and family members generally encourage it.

d) People fail to use safety behaviors.

b) Such behavior reduces the amount of fear a person experiences.

Regina has social anxiety disorder. She tells her therapist that she is awkward, frequently commits social blunders by avoiding eye contact, and struggles to respond effectively when given compliments. Regina’s report provides an illustration of

a) a predisposing biological factor.

b) preparedness to make learned associations.

c) social skills deficits in social anxiety disorder.

d) cognitive bias in social anxiety disorder.

c) social skills deficits in social anxiety disorder.

Both Lindsay and Nicole just completed solos in a singing competition. The judges awarded them both scores of 9 out of 10. The information that Lindsay has social anxiety disorder and Nicole does not suggests that

a) Lindsay is less likely than Nicole to worry about how others perceived her performance.

b) Nicole is likely to have higher standards than Lindsay.

c) Lindsay is likely to think she sang more poorly than Nicole.

d) Nicole is more likely than Lindsay to give up performing.

c) Lindsay is likely to think she sang more poorly than Nicole.

There is evidence that social anxiety disorder is related to paying more attention to __________ cues and less attention to __________ cues.

a) external; internal

b) social; personal

c) internal; external

d) personal; social

c) internal; external

In regard to panic, the locus coeruleus

a) is likely to be undersensitive.

b) decreases panic by decreasing activity.

c) shows increased activity.

d) exhibits lower glucose metabolism.

c) shows increased activity.

When attempting to trigger panic attacks experimentally through the use of drugs, researchers have found that

a) such drugs produce panic in people without a history of panic attacks but not in people with a history of panic attacks.

b) more than a dozen different types of drugs can trigger panic attacks among people with a history of panic attacks.

c) it is nearly impossible to replicate the physiological symptoms that occur during a real panic attack.

d) people with a history of panic attacks are more likely to report physiological symptoms than emotional symptoms.

b) more than a dozen different types of drugs can trigger panic attacks among people with a history of panic attacks.

Which statement about triggering symptoms of panic attacks is accurate?

a) Only stimulant drugs can induce panic attack symptoms.

b) Increasing oxygen flow triggers rapid breathing and can induce panic attacks.

c) Catastrophic interpretations decrease the risk of induced panic attacks.

d) Inner-ear disease can produce symptoms that induce panic attacks.

d) Inner-ear disease can produce symptoms that induce panic attacks.

SSRI stands for

a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

b) selective serotonin release inhibiters.

c) systematic serotonin reuptake infusion.

d) systematic serotonin release infusion

a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

Which structure seems to be particularly important in explaining panic disorder?

a) locus coeruleus

b) amygdala

c) hippocampus

d) thalamus

a) locus coeruleus

Classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to bodily sensations is called

a) interoceptive conditioning.

b) systematic desensitization.

c) the two-factor model.

d) exposure.

a) interoceptive conditioning.

Compared to people without a history of panic disorder, those with a history of panic disorder

a) are quicker to extinguish unconditioned fears.

b) are slower to extinguish conditioned fears.

c) more often fail to manifest unconditioned fears.

d) develop conditioned fears more slowly.

b) are slower to extinguish conditioned fears.

A major psychological hypothesis regarding the onset of panic involves

a) a fundamental problem with breathing control.

b) difficulties in relaxing.

c) a concern with and misinterpretation of bodily sensations.

d) excessive attempts to relax that fail.

c) a concern with and misinterpretation of bodily sensations.

The Anxiety Sensitivity Index measures

a) the ability of people to control negative cognitions.

b) the presence of a genetic predisposition to anxiety disorders.

c) the extent to which people respond fearfully to their bodily sensations.

d) the likelihood that people will respond to medication for anxiety.

c) the extent to which people respond fearfully to their bodily sensations.

The principal cognitive explanation for the etiology of agoraphobia is

a) the fear-of-fear hypothesis.

b) interoceptive conditioning.

c) the two-factor model.

d) operant conditioning.

a) the fear-of-fear hypothesis.

What is the core feature of GAD?

a) increased heart rate

b) fear of dying

c) worry

d) dizziness

c) worry

In one cognitive model, which anxiety disorder develops when anxiety is reinforced because it distracts the person from other, more powerful negative emotions and images?

a) phobias

b) panic disorder

c) generalized anxiety disorder

d) obsessive-compulsive disorder

c) generalized anxiety disorder

Research involving people with generalized anxiety disorder suggests that worry

a) serves as an avoidance mechanism.

b) is adaptive.

c) increases psychophysiological signs of arousal.

d) helps people remember traumatic images.

a) serves as an avoidance mechanism.

A common focus of most effective psychological treatments for the anxiety disorders is

a) response prevention.

b) exposure.

c) muscle relaxation.

d) behavioral activation.

b) exposure.

Research suggests that a type of cognitive therapy developed by Clark is particularly helpful with

a) all anxiety disorders.

b) specific phobias.

c) panic disorder.

d) social anxiety disorder.

d) social anxiety disorder.

Research on effective treatments for social anxiety disorder suggests that a therapist should consider

a) exposure and cognitive therapy.

b) cognitive therapy only.

c) exposure and systematic desensitization.

d) systematic desensitization only.

a) exposure and cognitive therapy.

Interpersonal interactions and role-play situations are used in the treatment of

a) specific phobias.

b) social anxiety disorder.

c) panic disorder.

d) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

b) social anxiety disorder.

Which treatment combination leads to improved outcomes for people with anxiety disorders?

a) CBT and medication

b) CBT and humanistic therapy

c) humanistic therapy and medication

d) EMDR and CBT

a) CBT and medication

Internet-based CBT for individuals with anxiety disorders produces

a) only brief improvement.

b) an initial worsening of symptoms.

c) no meaningful improvement.

d) significant improvement.

d) significant improvement.

From a behavioral point of view, exposure reduces anxiety through which process?

a) extinction

b) flooding

c) operant conditioning

d) sensitization

a) extinction

84. Exposure treatment is effective for __________ of clients.

a) 20–30%

b) 40–50%

c) 55–65%

d) 70–90%

d) 70–90%

The effects of which type of therapy appear to endure for at least 6 months after the end of treatment?

a) CBT

b) flooding

c) reinforcement

d) psychoanalysis

a) CBT

In the treatment of anxiety disorders, extinction involves

a) completely erasing any conscious memory of a specific phobia.

b) a system like an eraser.

c) learning new associations to stimuli that inhibit activation of the fear response.

d) flooding of memories.

c) learning new associations to stimuli that inhibit activation of the fear response.

__________ is sometimes used to simulate feared situations such as flying.

a) Virtual reality

b) Visual simulation

c) Memory flooding

d) Operant conditioning

a) Virtual reality

In-vivo exposure to feared objects simulates

a) real-life situations.

b) memories of trauma.

c) social anxiety disorder.

d) anxiety developed in the womb.

a) real-life situations.

Which of the following is a prominent behavioral technique for the treatment of GAD?

a) cognitive restructuring

b) imaginal exposure

c) relaxation training

d) systematic desensitization

c) relaxation training

Which approach is more cost-effective than medication in the treatment of social anxiety disorder?

a) progressive muscle relaxation

b) CBT

c) in vivo sensitization

d) group psychotherapy

b) CBT

Cognitive treatment of panic disorder involves

a) reducing the experience of bodily sensations.

b) avoiding the induction of bodily sensations.

c) challenging the interpretation of bodily sensations.

d) extinguishing memories of distressing bodily sensations.

c) challenging the interpretation of bodily sensations.

The diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder requires that symptoms be present for at least

a) 6 months.

b) 3 months.

c) 2 months for adolescents, 6 months for adults.

d) 3 months for adults, 6 months for children.

a) 6 months.

Corrina has a disproportionate fear of spiders and experiences extreme anxiety whenever she encounters them. The most likely diagnosis for her is

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

b) panic disorder.

c) agoraphobia.

d) specific phobia.

d) specific phobia.

Alden has moments of extreme anxiety that seem to appear without warning and without any apparent trigger. The most likely diagnosis for him is

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

b) panic disorder.

c) agoraphobia.

d) specific phobia.

b) panic disorder.

Demetrius has moments of extreme anxiety that seem to be caused by his fear of situations where it would be difficult to escape or receive help. The most likely diagnosis for him is

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

b) panic disorder.

c) agoraphobia.

d) specific phobia.

c) agoraphobia.

Carmine finds it difficult to control his worry about a variety of things in his life. He often feels restless, fatigues easily, and is irritable. The most likely diagnosis for him is

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

b) panic disorder.

c) agoraphobia.

d) specific phobia.

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

Takako has an intense fear of unfamiliar people and strong discomfort when she feels she is under scrutiny. The most likely diagnosis for her is

a) generalized anxiety disorder.

b) social anxiety disorder.

c) agoraphobia.

d) specific phobia.

b) social anxiety disorder.

Excessive worry about multiple areas of life lasting at least 6 months is consistent with __________.

generalized anxiety disorder

T/F: The duration criterion for generalized anxiety disorder differs for children and adults.

False

The main criterion that differentiates generalized anxiety disorder in children from the disorder in adults is

a) the number of symptoms that must be present.

b) the duration of symptoms that must be present.

c) both the number and the duration of symptoms that must be present.

d) neither the number nor the duration of symptoms that must be present.

a) the number of symptoms that must be present.