Biochem Review: Eicosanoids, AAs, Urea Cycle, Special AA Products, FH4/B12/SAM, Purines & Pyrimidines

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Flashcards covering core concepts from Eicosanoids, Amino Acid Synthesis/Degradation, Urea Cycle, Special AA Products, FH4/B12/SAM, and Purine & Pyrimidine metabolism.

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62 Terms

1
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What are the three main classes of eicosanoids?

Prostaglandins (PG), thromboxanes (TX), and leukotrienes (LT).

2
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What is the precursor for all eicosanoids?

Arachidonic acid (AA), a 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid from linoleic acid.

3
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Which enzyme releases arachidonic acid from membranes?

Phospholipase A2 (PLA2).

4
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Which enzyme converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandins and thromboxanes?

Cyclooxygenase (COX).

5
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Which enzyme converts arachidonic acid into leukotrienes?

Lipoxygenase.

6
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Which enzyme produces epoxides and HETEs from arachidonic acid?

Cytochrome P450 epoxygenases/metabolizing enzymes.

7
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What is the function of Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)?

Platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction (autocrine signal).

8
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Which COX isoform is constitutive and protective in gastric mucosa?

COX-1.

9
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Which COX isoform is inducible during inflammation?

COX-2.

10
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Which COX isoform is a splice variant of COX-1?

COX-3.

11
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How does aspirin affect COX enzymes?

Irreversibly acetylates COX, blocking PG/TX synthesis.

12
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How do omega-6 and omega-3 fatty acids differ in eicosanoid production?

Omega-6 (AA) tends to produce pro-inflammatory series-2 PGs; omega-3 (EPA) produces anti-inflammatory series-3 PGs.

13
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From which dietary sources are omega-6 and omega-3 eicosanoids derived?

Omega-6 from AA (linoleic acid pathway); omega-3 from EPA (from alpha-linolenic acid pathway).

14
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In the fed state, what do amino acids primarily do?

Used for protein synthesis and neurotransmitter synthesis (insulin-driven).

15
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In the fasting state, what happens to amino acids?

Muscle proteolysis releases alanine for gluconeogenesis in the liver.

16
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In starvation, how are amino acids used?

Proteolysis slows; amino acids are used minimally for gluconeogenesis.

17
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Which vitamin is required for transamination reactions?

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate).

18
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What is the difference between essential, nonessential, and conditionally essential amino acids?

Essential: must be obtained from diet; nonessential: body makes enough; conditionally essential: required in special conditions.

19
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What are classical and malignant PKU due to?

Classical PKU: phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency; malignant PKU: DHPR or BH4 synthesis defects.

20
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What enzyme deficiencies cause cystathioninuria and homocystinuria (types I–III)?

Cystathioninase deficiency causes cystathioninuria; cystathionine β-synthase deficiency (B6-responsive) causes homocystinuria Type I; B12/folate metabolism defects cause Type II/III.

21
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Which amino acids are exclusively ketogenic?

Leucine and lysine.

22
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Which enzyme deficiency leads to hyperammonemia with orotic acid accumulation (OTC deficiency)?

Ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC) deficiency.

23
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What is a key effect of lead on heme synthesis?

Inhibition of δ-ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase.

24
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What bilirubin is direct (conjugated) bilirubin?

Direct bilirubin is water-soluble and conjugated with glucuronide.

25
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What bilirubin is indirect (unconjugated)?

Indirect bilirubin is unconjugated and albumin-bound.

26
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Which type of jaundice shows increased unconjugated bilirubin?

Hemolytic jaundice.

27
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Which type of jaundice shows mixed bilirubin with increased urobilinogen?

Hepatocellular jaundice.

28
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Which type of jaundice shows increased direct bilirubin, pale stools, and dark urine?

Obstructive jaundice.

29
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What enzyme makes nitric oxide from arginine?

Nitric oxide synthase (NOS), requiring BH4.

30
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What amino acid is a precursor to catecholamines?

Phenylalanine is converted to tyrosine, which is the precursor to catecholamines.

31
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What amino acid is a precursor to GABA?

Glutamate.

32
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What is the function of tetrahydrofolate (FH4)?

Carries 1-carbon units (methyl, methylene, formyl) for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

33
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Which drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)?

Methotrexate.

34
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Which drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?

5-fluorouracil (5-FU).

35
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How do sulfa drugs affect bacteria?

Block PABA to folate synthesis in bacteria.

36
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Which deficiency causes spina bifida and megaloblastic anemia?

Folate deficiency.

37
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What are the two main reactions of B12 (cobalamin) in metabolism?

Homocysteine → methionine (with FH4) and methylmalonyl-CoA → succinyl-CoA.

38
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What are signs of B12 deficiency?

Macrocytic anemia and neurologic symptoms due to demyelination from methylmalonic acid accumulation.

39
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What is SAM used for?

Methyl donor for creatine synthesis, norepinephrine to epinephrine, phospholipids, melatonin, and DNA methylation.

40
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What are key precursors for purine nucleotide synthesis?

Ribose-5-phosphate, glutamine, glycine, aspartate, CO2, and FH4 one-carbon units.

41
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What is the committed step of purine synthesis?

PRPP amidotransferase: PRPP → phosphoribosylamine.

42
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How is purine synthesis regulated?

AMP and GMP feedback-inhibit PRPP amidotransferase and their own branch enzymes.

43
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Which enzymes convert IMP to AMP and GMP?

IMP → AMP: adenylosuccinate synthetase and lyase; IMP → GMP: IMP dehydrogenase and GMP synthetase.

44
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What is the purine salvage pathway enzyme?

HGPRT (hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase).

45
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What disease results from complete HGPRT deficiency?

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (self-mutilation, hyperuricemia, gout).

46
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Which enzyme deficiency causes SCID due to dATP inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase?

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

47
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Which enzyme deficiency can cause gout from uric acid overproduction?

PRPP synthetase overactivity or HGPRT partial deficiency.

48
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Which enzyme is inhibited by allopurinol in gout treatment?

Xanthine oxidase.

49
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What enzyme reduces ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides?

Ribonucleotide reductase.

50
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How is ribonucleotide reductase regulated?

Inhibited by dATP; activated by ATP.

51
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What is the committed step in pyrimidine synthesis?

CPS-II (carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II).

52
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How is CPS-II regulated?

Activated by PRPP; inhibited by UTP.

53
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Which enzyme links pyrimidine synthesis to DNA synthesis?

Thymidylate synthase (dUMP → dTMP; requires methylene-FH4).

54
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What drug inhibits thymidylate synthase?

5-fluorouracil (5-FU).

55
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Which enzyme inhibits DHFR, blocking dTMP synthesis?

Methotrexate.

56
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What is orotic aciduria caused by?

UMP synthase deficiency; causes megaloblastic anemia with ↑orotic acid and no hyperammonemia.

57
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How do you distinguish OTC deficiency from UMP synthase deficiency?

OTC: ↑orotic acid with hyperammonemia (urea cycle defect). UMP synthase deficiency: ↑orotic acid without hyperammonemia.

58
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Which enzyme deficiency causes SCID with both B- and T-cell failure?

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.

59
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What nucleotide is required for dTMP synthesis?

dUMP.

60
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Which nucleotide pathways are regulated by feedback inhibition?

Purines: AMP and GMP inhibit their own synthesis; Pyrimidines: UTP inhibits CPS-II.

61
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Which CPS is used in the urea cycle?

CPS-I (mitochondrial, requires N-acetylglutamate as activator).

62
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Which CPS is used in pyrimidine synthesis?

CPS-II (cytosolic, uses glutamine; not NAG).