BIO 108 Exam 3 Cells

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Cells

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190 Terms

1
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If there are 30 replicated chromosomes in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60
E. 80
D
2
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How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
A. The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA
B. The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA
C. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA
D. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA
E. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
D
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What is the first stage of mitosis, in which centrosomes are in opposite poles?
A. Telophase
B. Anaphase
C. Prometaphase
D. Metaphase
E. Prophase
C
4
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If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16
E
5
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In order for anaphase to being, which of the following must occur?
A. Chromatids must lose their kinetochores
B. Cohesion must attach the sister chromatids to each other
C. Cohesion must be cleaved enzymatically
D. Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate
E. Spindle microtubules must begin to polymerize
C
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If a cell at metaphase o f mitosis contains 20 sister chromatids, how many chromosomes will be present in a G1 cell?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
E. 40
B
7
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A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms of DNA would be found in a nucleus at prophase of mitosis?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
E. 32
C
8
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Which of the following events occurs during interphase of the cell?
A. condensation of the chromosomes
B. separation of the spindle poles
C. spindle formation
D. replication of the DNA
E. attachment of spindle fibers to the kinetochore
D
9
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What is a karyotype?
A. The set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual
B. The collection of all the mutations present within the genome of an individual
C. The combination of chromosomes found in a gamete
D. A system of classifying cell nuclei
E. A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to length
E
10
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Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n \=16?
A. The species is diploid with 3 chromosomes per cell
B. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell
C. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs
D. During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes
E. A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes
C
11
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Referring to a plant's sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes?
A. Spporophyte meiosis
B. Gametophyte mitosis
C. Gametophyte meiosis
D. Sporophyte mitosis
E. Alternation of generation
B
12
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you have in your possession a microscope slide with meiotic cells on it and a light microscope. What would you look for if you wanted to identify metaphase I cell on the slide?
A. A visible nuclear envelope
B. Separated sister chromatids at each pole of the cell
C. Tetrads lined up at the center of the cell
D. A synaptonemal complex
E. A cleavage furrow
C
13
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Which of the following characteristics do homologous chromosomes exhibit?
A. They carry information for different traits
B. They carry information for the same traits
C. They carry the same alleles
D. They align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II
E. All of the above
B
14
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Which of the following statements describe an example of alternation of generations?
A. A grandparent and grandchild each have dark hair but the parent has blond hair
B. A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces a spore by meiosis that gives rise to a multicellular haploid pollen grain (gametophyte)
C. A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to produce a diploid zygote
D. A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.
B
15
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What is a genetic cross between an individual showing a dominant phenotype (but of unknown genotype) and a homozygous recessive individual called?
A. A self-cross
B. A testcross
C. A hybrid cross
D. An F1 cross
E. A dihybrid cross
B
16
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The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?
A. None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation
B. The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7
C. All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosomes
D. All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes
E. The formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only
D
17
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Mendel continued some of his experiments into the F2 or F3 generation to \____
A Obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics
B. Observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear
C. Observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear
D. Distinguish which alleles were segregating
B
18
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Which of the following statements about independent assortment or segregation is correct?
A. The law of independent assortment requires describing two or more genes relative to one another
B. The law of segregation requires describing two or more genes relative to one another
C. The law of independent assortment is accounted for by observations of prophase I.
D. The law of segregation is account for by anaphase of mitosis
A
19
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Mendel accounted for the observation that traits that had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that \_____.
A. New mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, "reinventing" traits that had been lost in the F1
B. The mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants
C. Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1
D. Members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each trait, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each trait
C
20
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The genotype of F1 individuals in a tetra hybrid cross is AaBbCcDd. Assuming independent assortment, what is the probability that an offspring in the F2 generation will have phenotype AaBbccDd?
A. 1/16
B. 1/32
C. 1/128
D. 1/64
E. 1/2
B
21
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A man has an extra digit on each hand and foot. His wife and daughter have the normal number of digits. Extra digits are a dominant trait. What fraction of the couple's children would be expected to have extra digits?
A. 1/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/8
D. 1/2
E. 1/16
D
22
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Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of progeny of the cross BbTt x Bbtt will have black fur and short tails?
A. 1/8
B. 3/16
C. 3/8
D. 1/2
E. 9/16
C
23
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A man with type A blood marries a women with type B blood. They have a type O child. What is the probability of their 5th child having type O blood
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1
D. 0
E. 1/5
B
24
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A woman with blood type A has a daughter with is type A and a son who is type B. What is the possible genotype(s) of the father
A. IAIA
B. ii
C. IBi
D. IAIB
E. Both c and D
E
25
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The genotype of F1 individuals in a tetra hybrid cross is EeFfGgHh. Assuming independent assortment of these four genes what is the probability that the F2 offspring will have the following genotype: EeFfGgHh
A. 1/126
B. 1/256
C. 1/64
D. 1/16
E. 3/8
D
26
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If a female has one chromosome 16 with red genes and another chromosome 16 with an organ gene, which of the following egg (gamete) types will she produce?
A. only red gene eggs
B. only orange gene eggs
C. 1/2 red and 1/2 orange gene eggs
D. 3/4 red and 1/4 orange gene eggs
E. an indeterminate frequency of red and orange gene eggs
C
27
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In fruit flies, an X-linked dominant mutation (N) causes Notch winds in heterozygous females but is lethal in homozygous or homozygous conditions. What ratio of offspring would be observed in a cross of a Notch female by a normal male?
A. 1/3 notch females, 1/3 normal females, 1/3 normal males
B. 1/4 notch females, 1/4 normal females, 1/4 notch males, 1/4 normal males
C. 1/2 notch females, 1/2 normal males
D. 1/2 normal females, 1/2 notch males
E. 2/3 notch females, 1/3 normal males
A
28
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In humans, XO individuals are females with Turner syndrome. Red-green. color blindness its cause by an X-linked recessive allele. Suppose a colorblind man and woman who is normal with no history of color-blindness married and had a daughter who had Tuner's syndrome. Assuming an equal chance of nondisjunction arising from either parent, what is the likelihood that the daughter is also color-blind?
A. 1/16
B. 1/8
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
E. 1
C
29
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Crossing over in meiosis is an exchange of genetic material between
A. Sister chromatids of the same chromosome
B. Sister chromatids of homologous
C. Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosome
D. Non-sister chromatids of homology chromosome
E. Sister chromatids of non-homologs chromosomes
D
30
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What would be the dimensions of a Punnett square for the cross AaBB x aabb?
A. 4 x 4
B. 2 x 1
C. 4 x 1
D. 1 x 1
E. 2 x 4
B
31
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When Thomas Hunt Morgan cross his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyes flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyes flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
A. The gene involved is on the X chromosome
B. The gene involved is on the Y chromosome
C. The gene involved is on an autosome
D. Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies
E. Other female-specific factor influence eye color in flies
A
32
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A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to\_____
A. All of his daughters
B. Half of his daughters
C. All of his sons
D. All of his children
E. None of his children
A
33
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A nonreciprocal cross over causes which of the following products?
A. Deletion
B. Duplication
C. Nondisjuction
D. A and B
E. B and C
D
34
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an aneuploid condition that results from three copies of chromosome 21
A. Turner syndrome
B. Kleinfelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Cri du chat syndrome
E. Chronic myelogenous
C
35
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Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is inherited as an X-linked recessive allele in humans. A woman whose father suffered from G6PD marries a man who has the disease. What proportion of their sons would have the disease?
A. 100%
B. 1/4
C. 1/3
D. 1/2
E. zero
D
36
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From the choices presented below, selects the correct sequence for the arrangement of genes along a chromosome that exhibits the following recombination frequencies: A-B, 8 map units; A-C, 30 map units; A-D, 25 map units; C-D, 5 map units; B-D, 33 map units.
A. B-A-D-C
B. C-B-A-D
C. B-D-A-C
D. C-A-B-D
E. D-B-A-C
A
37
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The karyotype show in associated with which of the following genetic disorders?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Down syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Edward's Syndrome - trisomy 18
E. Pate's syndrome - trisomy 13
C
38
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If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gamete formation, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?
A. All the gametes will be diploid
B. Half of the gametes will be n + 1, and half will be n - 1
C. One of the gametes will be n +1, one will be n - 1, and two will be n
D. There will be three extra gametes
E. Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.
C
39
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Albinism, lack of pigmentation in humans results from an autosomal recessive gene designated a . Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino? what is the probability that the next child will be an albino girl?
A. 1/2; 1/4
B. 1/4; 1/2
C. 1/4; 1/8
D. 1/8; 1/4
E. 1/2; 1/8
C
40
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For each type of organism, identify the mechanism used for cell division
animal:
bacteria:
plants:
mitosis
binary fission
mitosis
41
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At what stage f mitosis does the nuclear envelope fragment disappear?
A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Prometaphase
D. Prophase
E. Telophase
C.Prometaphase
42
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After chromosomes are replicated, they stay attached to each other until later stages of mitosis at the \_______
A. centrosome
B. Sister chromatid
C. Centriole pair
D. Centromere
E. Kinetochore
D
43
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How are each produced by?
In plants, haploid cells are produced from diploid cells by:
In animals, somatic cells are reproduced by:
In animals, gamete cells are produced by:
Meiosis
Mitosis
Meiosis
44
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Chiasmata formation and crossing over occur during \______
A. prophase I of meiosis
B. prophase II of meiosis
C. prophase of mitosis
D. prophase I and metaphase I of meiosis
E. prophase I of meiosis and prophase of mitosis
A
45
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What is the term used to describe the replicated form of a chromosome?
Chromatid/ sister chromatid
46
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In clover, plants with alleles Pp are pink. Indicate the phenotype and the genotype in the boxes below.
Pp is the \________
Pink is the \_________
Genotype
Phenotype
47
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One gene that affects more than one phenotype is \_______
A. polygenic
B. epistatic
C. aneuploid
D. codominant
E. pleiotropic
E
48
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The recombination frequency between two gene loci is \_______
A. dependent on whether dominant or recessive alleles are carried at the two loci
B. greater as the distance between the two loci increases
C. equal to the size of the chromosome
D. dependent on the sex of the parent
E. greater as the distance between the two loci decreases
B
49
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A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?
A. somatic cells of a female only
B. somatic cells of a male only
C. unfertilized egg cells only
D. sperm cells only
E. both male and female somatic cells
A
50
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The Endosymbiosis Theory proposes that mitochondria and chloroplasts were originally prokaryotic organisms that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells. Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have many characteristics similar to bactrial cells, including circular DNA, similar ribosomes, and they self-replicate. Considering this theory, which of the following means of replication is most consistent with a bacterial origin for these two organelles?
A. Mitochondria and chloroplasts replicate by binary fission
B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts replicate by mitosis
C. Mitochondria and chloroplasts replicate by meiosis
A
51
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A group of cells is assayed fro DNA content immediately following mitosis and found to have 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus:
Those cells would have \_____ picograms at the end of the G1 phase and \_______ picograms at the end of G2.
8, 16
52
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Which checkpoint molecule has the most effect on whether a cell will enter mitosis and divide?
A. The G1 checkpoint
B. The G2 checkpoint
C. The M checkpoint
D. The S checkpoint
E. None, cells divide after approximately 20 days
A
53
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A dolphin has 44 chromosomes in its somatic cells.
After mitosis, each daughter cell will have \___ chromosomes
After meiosis, each daughter cell will have \_____ chromosomes
44, 22
54
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At what stage do chromosomes undergo independent assortment?
A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase
C. Metaphase II
D. Prophase I
E. Prophase II
A
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Life cycles vary among eukaryotic organisms. Which of the following condition is not common to all life cycles
A. Haploid cels formed by meiosis
B. A multicellular diploid organism
C. Fertilization of two haploid gametes forms a diploid zygote
D. Both haploid and diploid cells are observed
E. All of the above are observed in all life cycle of all organisms.
B
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For each of the events below, indicate whether it is observed in mitosis, meiosis, or both.
DNA is replicated prior to nuclear division
Synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs
Both mitosis and meiosis
Meiosis only
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A mosquito has 6 chromosomes in its somatic cells. Ignoring crossing over, how many kinds of gametes can be produced during meiosis?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 2
D. 16
E. 32
B
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Indicate one mechanism in which recombinant chromsomes can form during the process of meiosis
crossing over
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Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?
A. 1/16
B. 1/2
C. 3/16
D. 9/16
E. 3/8
F. none
G. all
B
60
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What allele combinations in gametes are possible in a GgHH individual? Assume both genes are autosomal and not linked
GH and gH
61
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Burpee is the larges seed company for gardeners in the US. One of the biggest selling tomato seeds is "Big Boy", introduced in 1949 as an F1 hybrid. Which of the following characteristics would you expect to observe?
A. The Big Boy hybrid sees would need to be generated form the original parental strains each season
B. The F1 generation plants would have a large number of mutations and would not be able to produce F2 plants with consistent traits
C. The F2 plants from self-fertilization would not all have consisted traits like the F1 generation
D. The F1 plants would be sterile and could not produce an F2 generation
A and C
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In codominance the heterozygote has \__________.
If a cross of bluebirds and white birds produces offspring that are silver (as in this image), is this most likely codominance or incomplete dominance? \_____________
A distinct phenotype with both parental alleles being expressed
Incomplete dominance
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Red-green color-blindness is an X-linked recessive condition. If a man has normal color vision, which of his children are expected to have normal color vision, regardless of the genotype of the mother?
A. All of his daughters and half of his sons
B. All of his daughters
C. All of his daughters and none of his sons
D. All of his daughters, and all of his sons
E. None of his daughters and all of his sons
B
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Recombination frequencies measured between three genes known to reside on the same chromosome are shown.
Recombination frequency
E to G 0.12
A to E 0.35
A to G 0.47
What is the best relative arrangement of these genes on a chromosome?
AEG
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How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species?
A. Due to the independent assortment of chromosomes
B. Due to random fertilization
C. Due to crossing over
D. Both A and B
E. A, B, and C
E
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Two chromosomes within a nucleus that carry genes for the same traits in the same loci are called \________.
A. Autosomes
B. Sex chromosomes
C. Homologous chromosomes
D. Gametes
E. Zygotes
C
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The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re-forming at opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this?
A. An animal cell in metaphase
B. An animal cell in telophase
C. An animal cell undergoing cytokinesis
D. A plant cell in metaphase
E. A plant cell undergoing cytokinesis
E
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A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have \______ picograms at the end of the S phase and \____ micrograms at the end of G2.
A. 8 .......... 8
B. 8 ........ 16
C. 16 ........8
D. 16 .........16
E. 12 ........16
D
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The African elephant has 56 chromosomes in its somatic cells. After mitosis, daughter cells will have \____ chromosomes; after meiosis, daughter cells will have \____ chromosomes.
A. 28 ........ 56
B. 56 ........28
C. 28 ..... 28
D. 56 ........56
E. 112 ........ 56
B
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A bacteria undergoes cell division by \__________, a plant undergoes cell division bay \_____; and an animal undergoes cell division by \_________.
A. mitosis ................... mitosis ............ mitosis
B. binary fission ................... mitosis ............ mitosis
C. binary fission................... binary fission............ mitosis
D. binary fission................... mitosis ............ meiosis
E. mitosis ................... binary fission............ meiosis
B
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Which of the following is true of the process of meiosis?
A. Two diploid cells are formed
B. Two haploid cells are formed
C. Four diploid cells are formed
D. Four haploid cells are formed
E. Four autosomes are formed
D
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When eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated in preparation for either mitosis or meiosis, the two copies of the chromosome are connected at the \______.
A. Centromere
B. Centrosome
C. Centriole
D. Kinetochore
E. Aster
A
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The stage of mitosis in which the sister chromatids are aligned equally distant from the spindle poles is \_____, and the chromatids separate and migrate to the poles during \_____
A. Anaphase ........ metaphase
B. Metaphase ........... telophase
C. Metaphase ........ anaphase
D. Telophase .......... metaphase
E. Metaphase ....... prophase
C
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Gamete cells are \_____
A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. Formed by meiosis
D. A and C
E. B and C
E
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Which of the following is not a role of cell division by mitosis?
A. reproduction
B. growth
C. repair
D. production of gamete cells
E. all of the above are roles of mitosis
D
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If a cell contains 24 chromatids at the start of mitosis, how many chromosomes are present in the daughter cells?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
E. 96
B
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If a cell contains 24 chromatids at the start of meiosis, how many chromosomes are present in the daughter cells?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
E. 96
A
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Taxol is an anticancer drug. In animal cells, taxol disrupts microtubule formation and stops mitosis. Specifically, taxol must affect \___________.
A. the fibers of the mitotic spindle
B. anaphase
C. formation of the centrioles
D. Chromatid assembly
E. The S phase of the cell cycle
A
79
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Ignoring crossing over, how many kinds of gametes can be produced by an organism with a diploid number of 8?
A. 2 x 5
B. 5^2
C. 2^5
D. 10^5
E. 5^10
C
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Eukaryotic sexual life cycle shows tremendous variation. Which of the following elements, I - V, do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. alternation of generation
II. meiosis
III. fertilization
IV. gametes
V. spores
A. I, IV, and V
B. I, II, and IV
C. II, III, and IV
D. II, IV, and V
E. all of the above
C
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What happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A. Homologous chromosomes are separated
B. The chromosome number is conserved.
C. Sister chromatids are separated
D. Four daughter cells are formed
E. All of the above
A
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A cell with only a single set of chromosomes is \________
A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. An autosome
D. A sex chromosome
E. Homologous
B
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Which of the following terms belongs with the words synapsis, tetrads, and chiasmata?
A. haploid
B. crossing over
C. autosomes
D. prophase II
E. fertilization
B
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A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei contains how many chromosomes?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 23
D. 46
E. 92
D
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All of the following occur during the prophase of mitosis in animal cells except \_________
A. The centrioles move toward opposite poles
B. The nucleolus can no longer be seen
C. The nuclear envelope disappears
D. Chromosomes are duplicated
E. The spindle is organized
D
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Consider the steps in meiosis described below. Which of the following is the order that most logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis?
1. formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus
2. alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate
3. separation of sister chromatids
4. separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere
5. synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 5, 2, 3, 4, 3
C. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
D. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
E. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
E
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Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Mitosis produces new nuclei with exactly the same chromosomal endowment as the parent nucleus.
B. Mitosis may occur without cytokinesis.
C. Mitosis and cytokinesis are required for asexual reproduction.
D. The mitotic spindles in prokaryotic cells are composed of microtubules.
E. None of the above, they are all true
D
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The correct sequence of steps in the M phase of the cell cycle is \___.
A. prometaphase,prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
B. prophase, metaphase, prometaphase, anaphase, telophase
C. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, prometaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E. cytokinesis, telophase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphas
C
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During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids?
A. from interphase through anaphase
B. from G1 of interphase through metaphase
C. from metaphase through telophase
D. from anaphase through telophase
E. from G2 of interphase through metaphase
E
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If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, they will \____.
A. move directly into telophase
B. complete the cycle and divide
C. exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state
D. enter a G0 phase
E. complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls
B
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Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A. chromosome replication
B. synapsis
C. production of daughter cells
D. alignment of tetrads at metaphase plate
E. both B and D
E
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For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
A. 2^23
B. 23^2
C. 2 x 23
D. 2^46
E. 46^2
A
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When comparing prophase I of meiosis with prophase of mitosis, which of the following occurs only in meiosis?
A. The chromosomes condense.
B. Tetrads form.
C. The nuclear envelope disassembles.
D. A spindle forms.
E. Each chromosome is composed of two chromatids
B
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A common feature of all sexual life cycles, is that the chromosome number remains stable over generations because \___ and \____ always alternate.
A. meosis ............... mitosis
B. mitosis ............... interphase
C. meiosis ............... fertilization
D. meiosis I ............... meiosis II
E. mitosis ................ fertilization
C
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In meiosis, the first nuclear division separates \____, while the second nuclear division separates \____.
A. centromeres ....... the cytoplasm
B. the cytoplasm ....... centromeres
C. sister chromatids ....... homologous chromosomes
D. homologous chromosomes ....... sister chromatids
E. sister chromatids ....... the cytoplasm
D
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Following mitosis, \_______ daughter cells are formed that are genetically \______ to their parent cell.
A. two ................. nonidentical
B. four ................. identical
C. four ................. nonidentical
D. two ................. identical
D
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Which of the following events is observed is in both mitosis and meiosis?
A. Alignment of homologous chromosomes as tetrarads at the metaphase plate.
B. Separation of homologous chromosomes.
C. Genetically identical daughter cells.
D. Separation of sister chromatids.
E. Generation of 4 daughter cells
D
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The honey bee has 32 chromosomes in its somatic cells. Therefore, there are \________ chromosomes in diploid cells and \______ chromosomes in haploid cells.
A. 32 .......... 16
B. 64 .......... 32
C. 32 .......... 64
D. 16 .......... 32
E. 16 .......... 64
A
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A cell in the M phase is fused with a cell in the G1 phase. Checkpoint molecules from each cell interact with the other cell. The checkpoint molecules \____.
A. from the G1 cell cause the cell in the M phase to immediately stop mitosis and revert to a G1 stage
B. from the M phase cell causes the nucleus in G1 to immediately enter mitosis, even though the chromosomes have not been replicated
C. from the G1 cell cause the cell in the M stage to stall and wait until the nucleus in G1 'catches' up, then they both continue the M stage under their own signaling pathways
D. from the G1 cell cause the cell in the M phase to immediately enter the S phase
E. destroy the original G1 nucleus to prevent cellular damage from excess chromosome number
B
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Cell division by animal liver cells occurs by \_____, cell division of a plant mesophyll cell occurs by \_____, and cell division of a bacterial cell occurs by \_____.
A. meiosis ........... meiosis ............. binary fission
B. binary fission ........... mitosis ............. mitosis
C. binary fission ........... binary fission ............. mitosis
D. mitosis ........... mitosis ............. binary fission
E. meiosis ........... mitosis ............. binary fission
D