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Felonies are punishable by more than one year in prison.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Offenses less serious than felonies and usually punishable by incarceration of no more than one year in jail are called misdemeanors.
a. True
b. False
a. True
For an act to be considered a crime, the intent and the act must be present at the same time.
a. True
b. False
a. True
Self-incrimination occurs when an offender provides information about his or her guilt in a criminal offense.
a. True
b. False
a. True
If victims wish to recoup their losses following a crime, they must rely on:
a. substantive criminal law.
b. procedural criminal law.
c. real estate law.
d. civil law.
d. civil law
The definitions of crimes and people eligible for punishment are spelled out in:
a. procedural criminal law.
b. substantive criminal law.
c. constitutional criminal law.
d. fundamental criminal law.
b. substantive criminal law
Crimes usually considered and punished by more than a year in state or federal prison are called:
a. felonies.
b. misdemeanors.
c. civil infractions.
d. criminal elements.
a. felonies
Crimes that are usually punished by a sentence of less than a year in jail, probation, and or/fines are called:
a. felonies.
b. misdemeanors.
c. civil infractions.
d. criminal elements.
b. misdemeanors
Minor offenses that are typically punishable by small fines and that produce no criminal record for the offender are called:
a. felonies.
b. misdemeanors.
c. civil infractions.
d. criminal elements.
c. civil infractions
Which of the following indicates that for a crime to occur there must be an act of commission or omission by the accused?
a. Mens rea
b. Inchoate offense
c. Defamation
d. Actus reus
d. Actus reus
A guilty or blameworthy state of mind describes the element of:
a. mens rea.
b. inchoate offense.
c. defamation.
d. actus reus.
a. mens rea
The elements of a crime consist of:
a. actus reus, inchoate offense, and concurrence.
b. mens rea, actus rea, and punishment.
c. attendant circumstances, mens rea, and actus reus.
d. actus reus, causation, and inchoate offense.
c. attendant circumstances, mens rea, and actus reus
Which type of defense focuses an individual's action being socially acceptable under the circumstances despite causing a harm that violates criminal law?
a. Excuse defense
b. Justification defense
c. Necessity defense
d. Civil defense
b. Justification defense
Entrapment occurs when:
a. the accused claims is mentally ill.
b. the accused acts in self-defense.
c. the accused must commit the act to survive.
d. the accused is lured into crime by the police.
d. the accused is lured into crime by the police.
What distinguishes the defense of self-defense from the defense of necessity?
a. Necessity occurs when an individual must harm an aggressor to ward off an attack. For self-defense, this is not the case.
b. Necessity occurs when an offender has an incompetent attorney. For self-defense, this is not the case.
c. Necessity occurs when an offender is tricked into committing a crime. For self-defense, this is not the case.
d. Necessity occurs when offenders must break the law in order to save themselves or prevent some greater harm. For self-defense, this is not the case.
d. Necessity occurs when offenders must break the law in order to save themselves or precent some greater harm. For self-defense, this is not the case.
Coercion to commit a crime from another party would be considered what type of defense?
a. Entrapment
b. Self-defense
c. Mistake of fact
d. Duress
d. Duress
The main purpose of the Comprehensive Crime Control Act of 1984 was:
a. to strengthen laws regarding violence against women.
b. to allow police departments to hire more officers.
c. to limit the insanity defense to those with severe mental disease or defect.
d. to punish federal offenders who cross state lines.
c. to limit the insanity defense to those with severe mental disease or defect.
The notion of ___________ suggests that an individual can only be subjected to one prosecution or punishment for a single offense in the same jurisdiction.
a. double jeopardy
b. self-incrimination
c. fundamental fairness
d. incorporation
a. double jeopardy
In a criminal prosecution, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, an impartial jury, and to confront witnesses. This is protected by the ________ Amendment.
a. First
b. Fourth
c. Fifth
d. Sixth
d. Sixth
The Fourteenth Amendment:
a. protects citizens from unreasonable search and seizure
b. protects citizens from unreasonable use of force by police
c. spreads power between the executive and legislative branches
d. requires states to observe federal due process standards
d. requires states to observe federal due process standards
What is the legal doctrine supporting the idea that so long as a state's conduct maintains basic standards of fairness, the Constitution has not been violated?
a. Fundamental fairness
b. The incorporation doctrine
c. Doctrine of fairness
d. Original intent
a. Fundamental fairness
The right to counsel in felony cases was applied to the states in the landmark case of:
a. Mapp v. Ohio (1961).
b. Weeks v. United States (1914).
c. Barron v. Baltimore (1833).
d. Gideon v. Wainwright (1963).
d. Gideon v. Wainwright (1963).
The unlawful entry of a structure to commit a felony or a theft is the definition of:
a. assault.
b. burglary.
c. robbery.
d. theft.
b. burglary
The taking or attempting to take anything of value from the care, custody, or control of a person or persons by force or threat of force of violence and/or by putting the victim in fear is the definition of:
a. assault.
b. burglary.
c. robbery.
d. theft.
c. robbery
