eent

1. Both the SCM and traps are weak on the right, this suggests a lesion of what CN

Right CN XI

2. A lesion of which CN is most likely when an individual is instructed to look straight ahead, and one of their eyes

deviates medially

CNVI

3. An individual has no gag reflex on the left but does on the right sensation is intact

bilaterally on the say ahh test the pharyngeal arch on the left is lower than the right what lesion would this most likely be ___

Left CN X

4. Las of tear production could result from impairment of which CN

VII

5. An individual cannot feel a wisp of cotton - which CN

CN V

6. The corneal reflex test which CN

CN V and VII and III

7. Asking if an individual can feel an ice cube on the anterior portion of their tongue tests,

which CN is responsible for this

CN V

8. Both the SCM and traps are weak on the right. This suggests a lesion of which CN

CNXI

9. A patient protrudes their tongue and it deviates to the left. This suggests a lesion of which CN

Left CN XII

10. Romberg's test is one part of the evaluation of which CN

CN VIII

11. Direct pupillary reflex is absent on the right, consensual reflex to left is absent. Direct

response is intact on the left and consensual reflex to the right is intact. Where is the lesion

Right CN II

12. An individual opens their mouth as wide as possible and the distance is approximately 2

fingers in width. This would suggest the movement of the TMJ is ___

Decreased

13. When tapping on the patients parotid gland produces ipsilateral facial spasms, they should want to order a blood test for which of the following

Hypocalcemia

14. A single enlarged thyroid gland is most suggestive of what condition

Malignancy

15. Where does the examiner place their fingers to palpate for movement of the TMJ

Anterior to the tragus

16. What is the chvostek's sign

Tapping on the parotid produces an ipsilateral facial spasm

17. To palpate the thyroid gland, the examiners middle finger should be placed adjacent to

which landmark

Cricoid cartilage

18. Which of the following would be most likely to cause an inspection finding of a tracheal

deviation

Pneumothorax

19. An individual respites feeling fatigued and constipated they have gained weight over the past few months and have dry, coarse skin and brittle hair

Diffusers enlarged thyroid gland

20. To palpate the thyroid gland, the examiners middle finger should be

On the cricoid cartilage

21. Discovering a lymph node in the left subclavian fossa that is enlarged, hard and non

movable would indicate what issue

GI metastasis

22. When an individual has an infection, the lymph nodes often become enlarged and

Boggy and tender

23. A lymph node that is hard non tender and moveable suggest which of the following

Calcified

24. A red itchy foul smelling crusty ear would most likely be which of the following conditions

Otitis externa

25. Non tender nodules of the pinna of the ear suggests

Gouty tophi

26. Which of the following would present with a full 'stopped up' feeling ear and retracted tympanic membrane

Blocked eustachian tube

27. When a tuning fork is placed on top of patients head, if they hear sound louder on the

side that is longer on the finger rub test, which is the underlying cause of hearing loss

Acoustic neuroma

28. On the weber test, the sound is louder on the short side of the rub test. Which of the following is likely the cause

Excessive cerumen (ear wax)

29. If a person has unilateral sensorineural hearing loss on the weber test, they would hear

the sound louder on the side that was ___ on the rub test

Long side

30. If the result of the rinne test bilaterally are 23 sec on the mastoid and 47 in front of the EAM, the result is

Normal

31. Amber fluid behind the tympanic membrane

Acute serous otitis media

i. Acute suppurative otitis media = beefy red

ii. Chronic suppurative otitis media = tympanic membrane perforation, ear discharge

32. An otoscopic exam, the TM is beefy red and intact without visible landmarks. The cone of the light is scattered. Which of the following is most likely

Bacterial infection

33. Which of the following is a risk factor for acute toxic labyrinths

Taking aspirin

34. For the rinne test, the examiner sounds the tuning fork and then

Places it on the mastoid (angled obliquely away from the ear) until the patient can no longer hear and then move it next to the ear

35. If an individual has a unilateral sensorineural hearing loss on the weber test, the patient would hear the sound on the side that was ____ on the rub test

Longer

36. The results on the finger rub test show that on the right, the patient can hear the sound

to the fingertips on their outstretched arm and on the left they hear the sound to their elbow. On the weber test, the sound is louder in the right ear. Which of the following results on the rinne test would be consistent with the other exam findings

10 seconds on the mastoid, 20 seconds in the air

37. The cover uncover test is useful to detect which of the following conditions

Ophthalmoparesis

38. When an individual looks up, then looks straight ahead if there is a strip of sclera visible

between the iris and upper eyelid what is most likely

Graves' disease

39. Which of the following occurs when ones gaze shifts focus from far away to an object nearby

Pupils constrict

40. Which of the following can grow across the cornea and obstruct vision

Pterygium

41. The cover / uncover test is useful to detect which is the following conditions

Strabismus

42. Which of the following could cause a corneal abrasion

Entropion

43. Which if the following describes the most likely eye examination findings for an individual

with Argyll Robertson pupils? The pupils are

Mtotic, irregular, they do not react to light, they accommodate

44. Redness and swelling near the medial side of the eye along with pressure if pjs coming through the punctum when the lacrimal sac is present would suggest which of the following

Dacryocystitis

45. What are yellow deposits of the cholesterol around the eyelids called

Xanthelomas

47. Which of the following tests is most helpful in diagnosing glaucoma

Confrontation

48. Which of the following describes finding with adie's tonic pupil

Mydriatic pupil and slow light reflex

49. If a patient has a CN III lesion, which of the following are an associated finding

Mydriatic pupil

50. The amsler grid is used to diagnose which condition

Macular degeneration

51. A large amount of drusen bodies around the macular suggests

Macular degeneration

54. If someone had a brain tumor causing intracranial pressure, which of the following would

be most diagnostic

Papilledema

55. What is the term for a lesion that is flat, nonpalpable, and less than 1 cm in diameter

Macule

56. When is arcus senilis clinically significant

In patients under the age of 40 years old

57. An individual reports diplopia when trying to read a book. Which of the following exam findings indicates a CN VI lesion as a possible cause of diplopia

One eye cannot look down and in

58. Which of the following is most commonly associated with cotton wool patches/exudates

in the retina

Hypertension

61. When a person's focus changes from far away to something nearby, the pupils ___ and the lens become more ____

Constrict , rounded

63. If an individual cannot close their left eye, which other exam findings would be most

likely

Loss of facial muscle tone on their left side

70. When palpation of the trachea reveals lack of side to side mobility, it raises the concern of possible

Malignancy

71. An individual opens their mouth as wide as possible and the distance is approximately 3

fingers in width. This suggest that the movement of the TMJ is ___

Normal

72. Which of the following could cause absence of the red reflex on a fundoscopic exam

Detached retina

73. Palpation of a lymph node that is enlarged, hard, non movable and nontender suggest the node is

Cancerous

74. An individual whose ears are constantly wet is likely to develop what

Otitis externa

75. A 56 year old cannot accommodate to read small print held 8-10" from their eyes. There

are no abnormalities detected on cardinal field of gaze and pupil light reflexes are intact bilaterally which if the following is most likely

Presbyopia

76. A blue gray ring encircling a 74 year olds iris is most likely what

An indicator of hyperlipidemia

77. Cauliflower ear tends to result from which of the following

Healed hematomas

78. A lump in the ear caused by excessive growth of the bony lining describes

Exostosis

79. An individual with unblocked eustachian tube often complains for healing loss and

Their ears feel plugged

80. To palpate the thyroid gland, the examiners middle finger should be

On the cricoid cartilage

81. Which of the following is a risk factor for acute toxic labyrinth : smoking, swimming,

surfing

Smoking

83. An individual who has xanthelasmas should be tested for which of the following

High cholesterol

84. Which of the following would indicate proliferation diabetic retinopathy

Neovascularization

85. An inverted, bulging optic disc suggests

Increased intracranial pressure

86. If a person has horner's syndrome, they would exhibit ptosis of the eyelid and which of

the following

Mitotic pupils and anhidrosis

87. Surfers are most prone to developing which of the following ear conditions

Exostosis

88. If a patient has a CN III lesion, which of the following would be an associate's finding

Anhidrosis on ipsilateral face

89. On examining a patient's mouth, a hard midline growth is palpable along the hard palate. The patient says it has always been there. The growth is most likely

Benign

90. Clubbing of the nails could indicate which of the following conditions

Heart failure

91. An individual who smokes and has worked for the past 25 years as a landscaper develops ulcerations on his lower lip that has persisted for 3 weeks. What is most likely

Labial carcinoma

92. Which of the following creates swollen gums that bleed easily

Vitamin C deficiency

93. Which of the following suggest maxillary sinus infection

Toothache

94. Which of the following would be the likely underlying cause of springiness and floating when nail roots are palpated

Lung cancer

95. What is the term for a lesion that is flat, nonpalpable, and measures less than 1cm in diameter

Erosion (lesion - flat, nonpalpable - macule)

96. Rhinophyma is believed to be an extreme form of what skin condition

Rosacea

97. A subconjunctival hemorrhage can be caused by ___ but of often idiopathic

Increased intrathecal pressure

98. What causes paronychia

Bacteria

99. What term describes a lesion that is an elevated, irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema such as urticaria or an insect bite

Wheal

100. Which of the following is associated with increased risk for colon cancer

Peutz-jeghers syndrome

101. The difference between bullae and vesicles in that bullae

Are larger in size

102. What does pitting of the fingernails suggest

Psoriasis

103. What is the term for thinning of the skin surface with loss of skin markings

Atrophy

104. What is the difference between excoriation vs fissure

Fissure extends to the dermis

105. Gingival hyperplasia is a red flag for which of the following

Leukemia

106. Sialolithiasis is suspected when an individual reports what symptoms

Intermittent submandibular swelling

107. Which of the following causes a smooth tongue (atrophic)

Riboflavin deficiency (B2)

108. What is a depressed, moist loss of part of epidermis following rupture of a vesicle

Erosion

109. Untreated strep puts an individual at higher risk for which of the following

Heart damage

110. Onycholysis is likely to result from fungus, psoriasis, or which of the following

Trauma

111. Kolionchya is caused by which of the following underlying conditions

Iron deficiency (anemia)

112. Which of the following nail signs suggest subacute bacterial endocarditis

Splinter hemorrhage

113. Which of the following would help differentiate leukoplakia from oral candidiasis

Checking to see if patches can be scraped off