PHARMACOLOGY Review

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109 Terms

1
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The official name of a drug is termed?

a. generic

b. trade

c. chemical

generic

2
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How many generic names can a drug have?

one

3
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True or False: Generic names have a capital letter.

false, dot not have capital letter

4
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A drug must be __________ and _____________ equivalent.

biologically and therapeutically

5
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Two formulations of a drug that produce similar concentrations in the blood and tissue (rate) is known as?

a. biologically equivalent

b. therapeutically equivalent

a. biologically equivalent

6
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How many names can a trade name have?

multiple

7
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True or False: The first letter is capitalized for trade names.

true

8
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How many phases of clinical testing are there?

4

9
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Which phase of drug development is when small doses are given to small number of healthy human volunteers ?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase I

10
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Which phase of drug development determines human safety?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase I

11
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Which phase of drug development is when a large number of healthy humans get the drug?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase II

12
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Which phase of drug development tests effectiveness and adverse reactions are noted?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase II

13
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Which phase of drug development is when drug us given to a large number of people that have a condition to be treated?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase III

14
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Which phase of drug development tests safety and determines dosage?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase III

15
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Which phase of drug development determines post marketing surveillance?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase IV

16
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Which phase of drug development documents toxicity in patients taking drug after it has been released and when sometimes drugs get taken off the market?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase III

d. Phase IV

phase IV

17
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How many scheduled classes are drugs divided into?

5

18
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Which agency monitors drugs for the potential of abuse?

DEA

19
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Which schedule drug requires a prescription?

II, III, IV

20
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Which schedule drug must be typed or written for refill?

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule II

c Schedule III

d. Schedule IV

e. Schedule V

schedule II

21
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Which schedule drug can be telephoned in to the pharmacy 5 times in 6 months? Select all that apply

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule II

c Schedule III

d. Schedule IV

e. Schedule V

schedule III and IV

22
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as schedule number increases abuse potential ___

decreases

23
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Which schedule drug is not accepted for medical use such as heroin and marijuana?

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule II

c Schedule III

d. Schedule IV

e. Schedule V

schedule I

24
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Opioid narcotics falls into which schedule drug?

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule II

c Schedule III

d. Schedule IV

e. Schedule V

schedule II

25
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Codeine mixtures (Tylenol #3) falls into which schedule drug?

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule II

c Schedule III

d. Schedule IV

e. Schedule V

schedule III

26
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The amount of drug to produce a therapeutic effect is known as?

a. potency

b. efficacy

c. onset

d. duration

potency

27
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Where is the potency of a drug shown on a log dose curve?

x axis

28
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A less potent drug needs ____ of the drug. (less or more)

more

29
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A more potent drug needs _____ of the drug. (less or more)

less

30
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The maximum intensity of effect produced by a drug is known as?

a. potency

b. efficacy

c. onset

d. duration

b. efficacy

31
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Where is the efficacy shown on a log dose curve?

height

32
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True or False: If you give more of a drug, the efficacy will increase.

False, increases toxicity

33
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True or False: Efficacy and potency are related.

false, unrelated

34
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The time for the drug to start having an effect?

a. potency

b. efficacy

c. onset

d. duration

onset

35
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The length of time the effect is present is known as?

a. potency

b. efficacy

c. onset

d. duration

duration

36
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The time it takes for drug concentration to fall to 50% of original blood level is known as?

half life

37
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The measurement of the safety of a drug is known as?

therapeutic index

38
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Drug or substance that kills bacteria and is irreversible is known as?

a. bacteriostatic

b. bacteriocidal

c. resistance

d. antifungal

bacteriocidal

39
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Drug or substance that orevents growth of bacteria is known as?

a. bacteriostatic

b. bacteriocidal

c. resistance

d. antifungal

bacteriocidal

40
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The natural or acquired ability of an organism to be immune to or resist the effects of an antimicrobial agent is known as?

resistance

41
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The range of activity of a drug is known as?

spectrum

42
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When a combination of two agents produces less effect than either agent alone it is known as?

a. synergism

b. antagonism

antagonism

43
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When an interaction between two agents such as total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects it is known as?

a. synergism

b. antagonism

synergism

44
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A drug that produces an effect and has affinity for a receptor or cell membrane it is known as?

a. antagonist

b. agonist

c. partial agonist

agonist

45
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A drug that counteracts the action of an agonist is known as?

a. antagonist

b. agonist

c. partial agonist

antagonist

46
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Pharmokinetics is best described as which four mechanisms?

Absorption

Distribution

Metabolism

Excretion

47
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When a drug transfers from sight of administration to blood stream it is known as?

a. Absorption

b. Distribution

c. Metabolism

d. Excretion

absorption

48
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When a drug gets distributed by blood plasma is it known as?

a. Absorption

b. Distribution

c. Metabolism

d. Excretion

distribution

49
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True or False: Lipid soluble and ionized drugs diffuse easily across the membranes.

false: lipid soluble and unionized diffuse more easily

50
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What are 7 factors that influence absorption?

1. lipid solubility

2. charge

3. size of molecule

4. site of absorption

5. solubility

6. infection

7. blood flow at injection site

51
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Where is oral route drugs absorbed?

mainly by small inestine

52
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When is absorption bypassed?

when given IV

53
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What is the most important site for drug absorption of orally administered drugs?

small intestine

54
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What are some factors that affects distribution of a drug? (4)

1. organ size /amount of blood flow

2. drug solubility

3. plasma protein binding power

4. barriers ***

55
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What exerts the effect of drug?

free drug

56
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What are two barriers for drug distribution?

blood brain barrier and placental barrier

57
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During metabolism , the liver takes the drug and converts it into what?

metabolite (ionized and less lipid soluble so body can get rid of it)

58
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The body's way of changing a drug so that it can be excreted is known as?

a. Absorption

b. Distribution

c. Metabolism

d. Excretion

metabolism

59
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Where is the most common location for biotransformation?

liver

60
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What are the three metabolism mechanism?

active to inactive

active to active (long half life)

inactive to active (prodrug)

61
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What is the most common metabolism mechanism?

active to inactive

62
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Which health problems can affects metabolism?

hepatitis or alcoholism

63
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When the liver inactivates some drugs it is known as?

first pass effect

64
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When a constant percentage of drug is removed from body per unit of time it is known as?

first order of kinetics

65
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When a constant amount of drug is removed from the body per unit time?

zero order of kinetics

66
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Which drugs have zero order of kinetics?

aspirin and alcohol

67
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What is the most common excretion site ?

kidneys

68
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Besides the kidneys, what are some other areas of drug excretion?

lungs

saliva

breast milk

sweat

gingival crevicular fluid

69
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True or False: lipid soluble drugs can be excreted in urine.

False, must be metabolized by liver into water soluble form to be excreted by urine

70
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What is the major route of fluoride excretion?

urine

71
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What are the different routes of asministration?

enteral and parenteral

72
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When a drug is placed directly in GI tract it is given by which route?

enteral (orally and rectal)

73
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Where must orally delivered drugs pass through?

hepatic portal circulation (first pass effect)

74
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Which enzymes in the liver are responsible for first pass effect?

P-450 enzymes

75
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the amount of drug available to produce systemic effect is reduced by ???

first pass effect

76
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if a drug has a high first pass effect what is needed?

larger oral dose

77
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Which route of administration bypasses the GI tract?

parenteral

78
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What are three parenteral routes?

inhalation

injection

topical

79
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Nitrous oxide is an example of which route of administration?

inhalation (parentetal)

80
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The therapeutic effects is ? (3 things)

predictable

dose related

targets organs

81
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An undesirable side effect of a drug is known as

adverse reaction

82
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A side effect is (3 things)?

expected response

dose related

nontarget organs

83
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A toxic reaction is ? (3 things)

expected response (exaggerated response of therapeutic effect)

dose related

target organs

84
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True or False: An allergic reaction is non predictable and not dose related.

true

85
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Mild allergic reactions can be treated with?

antihistamine or steroids

86
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Life threatening allergic reaction can be treated with which injection?

epinephrine

87
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Which category is the least teratogenic?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

e. X

A

88
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Which category is the most teratogenic?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

e. X

X

89
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The therapeutic index is ?

LD50/ED50

90
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the dose that kills approximately 50% of the animals is known as what?

lethal dose

91
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The does that produces effect in 50% of animals is known as

effective dose

92
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What shows the safety of a drug?

therapeutic index

93
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What is safer, a wider or narrow therapeutic index?

wider

94
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Name 7 medications that have a narrow therapeutic index

carbamazepine

cyclosporine

digoxin

levothryroxine

lithium

phenytoin

warfarin

95
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Which nervous system controls involuntary responses?

autonomic

96
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What are the two systems of the autonomic system?

sympathetic and parasympathetic

97
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Which system is the fight or flight?

sympathetic

98
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Which system is the rest and digest?

parasympathetic

99
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Sympathetic have _______ preganglionic fibers and _______ postganglionic fibers

short and long

100
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In the SANS , what is released by adrenal medulla?

epinephrine and small amount of NE