UAMS HEMATOLOGY EXAM 6

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251 Terms

1
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Write out the coagulation cascade.

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2
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Define hemostasis.

Process of keeping blood in the fluid state unless clotting occurs due to vascular injury

3
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What does hemostasis involve?

Vessels, platelets, plasma coagulation factors and fibrinolysis

4
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What is primary hemostasis?

The platelet plug formed on damaged vessels

5
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What is secondary hemostasis?

Fibrin formation from plasma factors

6
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True or false: The vascular system will normally allow red cells through the endothelial layer.

False: Normally will NOT allow red cells through the endothelial layer

7
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What is the role of the vascular system?

- Release of exposed substances: VWF and collagen

- Vasoconstriction or stoppage of blood flow

8
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What are symptoms of a vascular disorder?

Bruising, petechiae, mucous membrane bleeding

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Name an inherited vascular disorder.

Hereditary telangiectasia

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Drugs (steroids or estrogen) and age can cause what type of disorders?

Acquired disorders

11
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Where is a megakaryocyte developed?

Bone marrow

12
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What influences the number and size of megakaryocytes produced?

Thrombopoietin influences size of megakaryocytes with CSF-Meg

13
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Define endomitosis. What is it responsible for?

Doubling of DNA without cell division; reason for megakaryocyte's large size

14
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How do platelets enter into the peripheral blood?

Platelets get into the blood when the filament extends through the endothelial cells and fragments into cells.

15
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How many platelets are within the blood? Where are the rest of them stored?

2/3 of platelets circulate in the blood; the rest are stored in the spleen

16
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What is the lifespan of a platelet?

8-12 days

17
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What does the platelet plasma membrane (peripheral zone) contain?

Glycocalyx that is a receptor for various glycoproteins and phospholipids

18
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What is involved in platelet adhesion and binds vWF?

Glycoprotein Ib/IV/V

19
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What is involved within platelet aggregation and binds to fibrinogen?

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

20
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__________ are necessary for the activation of the intrinsic system and keeps the reactions localized.

Phospholipids

21
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What does the platelet cytoskeleton (structural zone or sol-gel zone) contain?

Cytoskeletal and microtubules

22
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Name what is contained within dense granules.

ADP, Ca++, and serotonin

23
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Which granules migrate to plasma membrane and release contents directly into plasma upon activation?

Dense granules

24
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Name what is contained within alpha granules.

Coagulation factors I, V, and VWF

25
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When activated, the granules fuse the SCCS, and their contents are released.

Alpha granules

26
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What is the function of platelets?

Aids in healing endothelial cells through growth factors that are produced by megakaryocyte

27
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What is a reversible characteristic in which platelets roll and cling to non-platelet surfaces?

Adhesion

28
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Exposed collagen reacts with vWF that activates __________ on the platelet surface.

Glycoprotein Ib

29
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Shape change whereby the platelet goes from discoid to spherical with pseudopods occurs in what process? Also, what causes it?

Adhesion; caused by ADP from endothelial cells

30
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Platelet to platelet interactions are called?

Aggregation

31
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True or false: Aggregation is irreversible.

True

32
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Initial interaction fibrinogen binds to __________ on the platelet surface, forming bridges between the platelets. Also, name what process this occurs in.

Glycoprotein IIb

Aggregation

33
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In platelet aggregation tests, what causes arachidonic acid to form thromboxane A2?

ADP

34
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__________ promotes release of Ca, which promotes secondary aggregation

Thrombaxane A2

35
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What is the process of secretion concerning platelets?

Thromboxane activates contractile waves causing release or secretion of granules

36
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PF3 (platelet factor 3), a phospholipid, activates a portion of which pathway?

Intrinsic pathway

37
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What is needed for secondary aggregation that solidifies the platelet plug?

ADP

38
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What are the 3 platelet tests?

1. Count

2. Bleeding time

3. Aggregation studies

39
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What test detects both primary and secondary waves?

Aggregation studies

40
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Is platelet rich or poor plasma required for platelet aggregation studies?

Platelet rich plasma

41
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What type of plasma is turbid?

Platelet rich

42
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As platelet aggregation occurs, the amount of light transmitted through the sample is measured. As platelets aggregate, the turbidity _________, allowing for what to occur?

Decreases; allowing for increased light transmittance

43
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What is plotted for aggregation patterns of primary and secondary aggregation?

The amount of light transmitted is plotted against time

44
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What measures vascular integrity as well as platelets?

Bleeding time

45
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What is the most common bleeding disorder due to?

Decreased platelet count is most common bleeding disorder

46
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Know the normal platelet aggregation pattern.

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47
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Know the platelet aggregation results.

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48
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What are the 3 inherited diseases with abnormal bleeding time and platelet aggregation?

- Bernard-Soulier

- Von Willebrand's

- Galnzmann's Thrombasthenia

49
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What is caused as a result of defective GPIb, the binding site for vWF?

Bernard Soulier disease

50
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What has low or absent VIII:vWF and increased bleeding time with defective adhesion (qualitative disorder)?

Von Willebrand's

51
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What is caused as a result of defective platelet membrane GP IIb which causes the inability to bind fibrinogen?

Glanzmann's thrombasthenia

52
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True or false: Acquired abnormal platelet counts are always low.

False; can be low or high

53
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What are acquired low platelet counts due to?

- May be due to increased destruction

- Decreased production in bone marrow

- Leukemia, aplastic anemia, megaloblastic leukemia

54
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What are acquired high platelet (thrombocytosis) counts due to?

- May be secondary following splenectomy

- Thrombocythemia: primary malignancy

55
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What has immune autoantibody to platelets and causes vessel occlusion with very low platelet count?

ITP

56
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What tests are abnormal for ITP?

PAIgG is positive

(CBC and other coag tests are normal)

57
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What are the treatment options for ITP?

Administer steroids and perform splenectomy

58
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For DIC, indicate the following test results:

- Blood smear findings

- PT, PTT, TT, FSP

- Fibrinogen, Platelet count

- D-Dimer

- Schistocytes on blood smear

- ↑ PT, PTT, TT, FSP

- ↓ Fibrinogen, Platelet count

- + D-Dimer

59
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Indicate what the following results are consistent with.

- Thrombocytopenia with RBC fragments

- Found predominantly in women and children

- Neurologic symptoms

TTP

60
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What is a possibility for the etiology of TTP?

Formation of Ultra Large vWF

61
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What normally cleaves ULVWF into smaller fragments?

ADAMTS-13

62
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In the absence of ADAMTS-13, ULVWF bind to what? What does this cause the formation of?

GP Ib and GP IIa/IIIb

Formation of hyaline thrombi

63
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What are neurological symptoms and renal disease of TTP caused by?

Caused by micro thrombi of platelets

64
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How should TTP be treated?

Treat with plasma exchange

65
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Coag tests are normal except for platelet count and shistocytes are found on peripheral blood smear in which disease?

TTP

66
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What is similar to TTP but only found in children following an infection like Salmonella or E coli?

HUS

67
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How does HUS manifest in the body?

Toxins enter bloodstream, attach to renal endothelial cells, which become damaged...

- Release ULVWF multimers

- Hyaline thrombi in renal vaculature

68
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How many plasma proteins are there?

12... I-XIII (no VI)

69
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Where are most of the coagulation factors produced?

Most are produced in the liver

70
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Which coagulation factors are not produced by the liver?

Exception is III, Ca++, VIII:vWF

71
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Name the vitamin K dependent factors.

II, VII, IX, X

72
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What factors are absorbed by BaSo4 and impaired by coumadin?

Vitamin K dependent factors

73
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Name the factors in the consumable group.

I, II, V, VIII, XIII

74
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Which factors are absent in serum?

Consumable group

75
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Name the factors in the contact group.

XII, XI, prekallikrein, HMWK

76
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Which factors are labile?

Factors V and VIII

77
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The coagulation reaction is a cascade that begins with the activation of XII to XIIa by contact with __________ and __________.

Phospholipid and calcium

78
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What helps to activate the intrinsic pathway?

Platelet factor 3

79
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Each factor acts as a __________ until activation. It then acts as an __________ after activation.

substrate

enzyme

80
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What factors does the intrinsic pathway include?

XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, I

81
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What is the intrinsic pathway activated by?

Activated by collagen and PF3

82
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PTT is used to detect which pathway?

Intrinsic pathway

83
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The extrinsic pathway includes which factors?

VII, V, X, II, I

84
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What is the extrinsic pathway activated by?

Activated by tissue thromboplastin

85
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PT is used to detect which pathway?

Extrinsic

86
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Name the common factors.

I, II, V, X

87
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What cleaves peptide A and B from fibrinogen to form fibrin?

Proteolytic thrombin

88
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Fibrin monomers polymerize through hydrogen bonding to form a clot. This clot is stabilized by which factor?

Factor XIII

89
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What must be added to the platelet plug to form a clot?

Fibrin

90
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Barium sulfate absorbs which factors?

II, VII, IX, X

91
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At every step of coagulation, there must be what?

A balance to prevent too much clotting

92
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What must be present in order for heparin to work?

ATIII

93
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What are the two most common coagulation inhibitors?

Protein C and S

94
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What binds to thrombomodulin, activating the Protein C pathway?

Thrombin

95
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When the protein C pathway is activated, what happens?

Stops the action of V and VIII

96
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Deficiencies in inhibitors will cause what issue?

Thrombosis

97
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Define fibrinolysis.

Enzyme dissolution of fibrin clot after healing

98
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In fibrinolysis, __________ is converted to __________ by activators such as __________ and __________.

In fibrinolysis, plasminogen is converted to plasmin by activators such as TPA and streptokinase.

99
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What is incorporated into the clot in fibrinolysis?

Plasminogen

100
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What attacks fibrinogen or fibrin and dissolves the clot?

Plasmin