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111 Terms

1
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Production of beta lactamase is inducible in which organisms

haemophilus influenza and staph aureus

2
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Which of the following is NOT consistent with strep pneumoniae

Catalase Negative

Bile solubility +

Bile esculin hydrolysis +

Alpha hemolysis on sheep blood agar

Bile esculin hydrolysis +

3
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What test can differentiate Viridans strep from group D strep and enterococcus

Bile esculin

4
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Optimal temp for Yersinia

25C

5
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PYR: colorimetric method to ID _____and _____

enterococci and Group A strep

6
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Bacitracin: used to ID ________ and differentiate from other beta-hemolytic streptococci

group A beta-hemolytic strep (S)

7
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Optochin: Used to ID __________

Streptococcus pneumoniae (S)

8
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Novobiocin: Used to ID _____from other coag neg staph

S. saprophyticus (R)

9
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Cefinase: Used to isolate beta-lactamase producing colonies of:

  1. Staph

  2. Haemophilus

  3. Enterococci

  4. Anaerobes

  5. Neisseria gonorrhoea

10
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LAP: Used to ID___________. Specifically_______ from _______, ______

catalase negative gram positive cocci

Aerococcus from Streptococcus, Enterococcus (+)

11
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MCAT (butyrate esterase): Used to ID______

Moraxella catarrhalis (+)

12
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AST for coliforms should routinely include which antibiotic?

Gentamicin

13
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Know what IMVC tests look like

knowt flashcard image
14
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How to perform Nitrate test?

Detect nitrate reductase (NO3 reduction)

Procedure:

<p>Detect nitrate reductase (NO3 reduction)</p><p>Procedure: </p>
15
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How to perform Sodium Hippurate?

Detects hippuricase (hippurate—> glycine and benzoic acid)

Procedure:

<p>Detects hippuricase (hippurate—&gt; glycine and benzoic acid)</p><p>Procedure: </p>
16
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How to perform VP?

Detects acetyl methyl carbonyl production (from glucose fermentations)

Procedure: Add reagent A and B after incubation and observe for color change

17
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How to perform MR?

Detects acid production (pH<4.5) during glucose fermentation

Procedure: add methyl red indicator at the end of incubation

18
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IMVIC is used to ID organisms in the _______group

coliform (GNR, aerobic/facultative anaerobic, and produces gas from lactose within 48 hrs)

19
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What 4 things are needed to classify Enterobacteriaceae?

  1. Nitrate reducer

  2. Motile (except Shigella, Kleb, and sometimes Yersinia)

  3. Oxidase (-)

  4. Glucose Fermentor

20
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Agents of Bioterrorism

Y. pestis

Route: Fleas

<p>Route: Fleas</p><p></p>
21
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Agents of Bioterrorism

B. Anthraces

Route: Farm Animals (woolsorters!)

<p>Route: Farm Animals (woolsorters!)</p>
22
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Agents of Bioterrorism
B. Anthraces can present as:

  • _____(most common)

  • _____

  • _____

  • cutaneous (most common)

  • pulmonary

  • gastrointestinal

23
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Agents of Bioterrorism

F. tularensis “rabbit fever”

knowt flashcard image
24
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Agents of Bioterrorism

Brucella

Route: contaminated animal products

<p>Route: contaminated animal products</p>
25
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Agents of Bioterrorism

Brucella can cause _____fever

undulant

26
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Agents of Bioterrorism

B. Pseudomallei

Route: contaminated water and soil

<p>Route: contaminated water and soil</p>
27
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List the 4 main organisms under Food Bioterrorism

  1. Salmonella

  2. Shigella

  3. E.coli O157

  4. Vibrio

28
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Strep Chart (in reference book-only common ones)

29
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What organisms can satellite around other colonies on SBA?

Haemophilus sp. and anything fastidious

30
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Can MALDI be used to ID Shigella?

NO; use Vitek

31
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What are the screening disks and diameters for ESBL?

CAZ <22mm

CRO <25mm

32
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What is the follow up fo ran ESBL screen?

(CAZ/CLA) - CAZ

(CRO/CLA) - CRO

5mm difference of either = (+)

33
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What organisms get an ESBL screen?

  1. E.coli

  2. Kleb

  3. Proteus mirabilis

34
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How is the KB zone size determined?

CLSI

35
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Minimum Inhibitory Concentration

conc. that prevents organism from growing

36
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Minimum Bactericidal Concentration

conc. that completely kills organism

37
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List 4 Beta lactamase antibiotics

  1. Penicillins

  2. Cephalosporins

  3. Carbapenems

  4. Monobactams

38
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Colony counts using a calibrated loop of 1 uL:

0-10=

10-99=

100+=

0-10= 103

10-99= 104

100+ = 105

39
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Colony counts using a calibrated loop of 10uL:

0-10=

10-99=

100+=

0-10= 102

10-99= 103

100+= 104

40
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What causes a D zone?

Inducible penicillin resistance between Clindamycin and Erythromycin

41
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How to test for penicillin on S. viridans?

E test or 1ug OX disc

42
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How to test for penicillin on Strep pneumo?

E test or 1ug OX disc on MH w/ 5% blood

43
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Orgs found in blood cultures that are associated with colon cancer

  • Clostridium necrophorum

  • Streptococcus bovis

44
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What is the common cause of sepsis in neonates and how do we test for it?

Group B strep ( Strep agalactiae)

Testing: Carrot broth, Detect agar, lance field antigen test

45
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What are the primary & secondary diseases caused by Group A strep?

Primary (during infection):

  1. Scarlet Fever

Secondary (after infection):

  1. Rheumatic Fever

  2. Post-Streptococcal glomerulonephritis

46
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Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Source: piggy’s and common in occupational exposure handling animal products

Characteristics:

Gram (+) : rods in chains or V shape

Catalase (-)

H2S (+)

Non motile

Resistant to VANCO

47
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What internal ailment can Enterotoxin by staph aureus cause?

Food poisoning

48
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What external ailment can Enterotoxin by staph aureus cause?

Scalded Skin Syndrome (Ritter’s Disease)

49
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Incubation requirements for Pertussis

Temp: 35-37C

Media: Bordet-gengou or Regan-Lower

50
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Incubation requirements for Legionella

Temp: 35C

Media: BCYE

51
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What is permease deficiency and ONPG used for?

determine the ability of an organism to produce β-galactoside enzyme

  • used on enterobacteriaciae

52
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What causes Gastric ulcers and how is it identified?

H. pylori

Testing: Tissue biopsy and Urea breath test

53
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Bacillus ____decolorizes easily

over

54
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Bacillus can be ____hemolytic

beta

55
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What can cause a pseudomembrane in the throat?

Corynebacterium diphtheria

56
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What media is used for C. diphtheria and how does it appear?

Media: Tellurite media

Appearance: mercury droplets

57
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What is in a TSI?

Slant: Lactose and Sucrose

Butt: Glucose

Indicator: Phenol Red (Yellow = acid; Red = alkaline)

58
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What are all the possible TSI reactions?

(Glucose: Lactose: Sucrose—> 1: 10: 10)

<p>(Glucose: Lactose: Sucrose—&gt; 1: 10: 10)</p>
59
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Know TSI for Enterobacteriaceae

knowt flashcard image
60
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Mycoplasma isolates have been associated with_____, _____, and _____

endocarditis, sternal wound infections, and arthritis

61
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M. pneumoniae may cause____, ____or _____

bronchitis, pharyngitis, or primary atypical pneumonia

62
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M. pneumoniae has historically been diagnosed by ____methods

serological

63
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Due to their lack of cell wall Mycoplasma are inherently resistant to ____

β-lactams

64
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TCBS Agar and vibrio organisms

yellow=sucrose utilization

<p>yellow=sucrose utilization</p>
65
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OFPBL Agar is used to select for ______especially in ____patients

Burkholderia cepacia; CF

66
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How does OFPBL Agar inhibit other organisms?

selective agents polymyxin B and bacitracin

67
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Standard MH Requirements

pH: 7.2-7.4

Specific cation conc.

Depth: 4mm

Temp: 35C

Incolum: 0.5 McFarland with fresh colonies (16-24 hrs)

68
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AST can be read at 16-18 hours except for ____and ______

Staph and Enterococcus ( must be 24 hours)

69
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Top 3 clinically sig Non Fermenters

  1. Psued

  2. Acinetobacter

  3. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

70
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Non Fermenters

Pseudomonas

GNC

NLF

OX (+)

TSI: K/K

Grapes

motile

71
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Non Fermenters

Acinetobacter baumanii

GNC

NLF

OX-

OF glucose: yellow/green

non motile

72
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Non Fermenters

Stenotrophomonas

GNC

NLF

OX-

OF glucose: green/green

Alk Phos +

motile

73
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Spirochetes

Borrelia

Disease:

Source:

Disease: Lyme disease

Source: Hard ticks

74
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Spirochetes

Leptospira

Disease:

Source:

Disease: Leptospirosis

Source: urine of animals (Hawaii 70% of infections )

75
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Spirochetes

Treponemes pallidum

Disease:

Source:

Disease: Syphilis !!

Source: Sexual Contact

76
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What is the MCAT disc used for?

Detects butyrate esterase to ID Moraxella catarrhalis

77
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Tests for Syphilis

VDRL -screen

RPR - rapid

78
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What is Pseudomonas intrinsically resistant to?

SXT

79
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What is Kleb intrinsically resistant to?

ampicillin

80
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MTM ingredients

SXT (trimethoprim)

Colliston

Vancomycin

Nystatin

81
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<p>“molar tooth”</p>

“molar tooth”

Actinomyces

82
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<p>What does this suggest in males? females?</p>

What does this suggest in males? females?

males: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

females: can’t say; females have GNC so must culture

83
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<p>culture looked like “bread crumbs”</p>

culture looked like “bread crumbs”

Fusobacterium nucleatum

84
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What bacteria genera are PAD (phenylalanine deaminase) positive

Proteus

Morganella

Providencia

<p>Proteus</p><p>Morganella</p><p>Providencia</p>
85
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If strep pneumo is suspected, what is a quick test that can be performed?

bile solubility (+)

86
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IMVC for important organisms

knowt flashcard image
87
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Neisseria carb ferm test

knowt flashcard image
88
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<p>“ chinese/oriental letters” or palisades</p>

“ chinese/oriental letters” or palisades

Corynebacterium species

89
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What org is incubated in microaerophilic conditions at 42C?

Campy

90
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What orgs require CO2 incubarion

  • Neisseria

  • Haemophilus

  • Strep pneumo

  • Capnocytophaga

91
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Can specimens for micro be transported on ice?

No, everything is at RT

92
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What does a Q-score of 0 indicate?

lots of epi’s so poor quality and most likely contamination

93
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What does a Q-score of 3 indicate?

high quality and abundant neutrophils, indicating infection

94
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What organisms are resistant to

  • Ampicillin

  • Cefazolin

  • Augmentin

  • Enterobacter

  • Citrobacter

  • Hafnia

  • Serratia

95
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For which antibiotic should you interpret where there is an 80% reduction of growth?

SXT (Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole)

96
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What is used to quench excess stain in Truants stain ( for acid fast bacteria)?

potassium pergmanganate

97
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What is the only non fermenter that is h2s pos

shewanella putrefaciens

98
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What drug is used to rule out MRSA?

FOX (R)

  • only OX and CZ reported as (R)

99
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On blood agar, which organism requires

X and V:

only V:

X and V: Haemophilus influenzae

only V: Para influenzae

100
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CVA agar

organism:

Temp:

organism: campy

Temp: 42C; microaero